NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 3

NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 3

101. A client diagnosed with eczema presents:
a. The presence of tiny red vesicles
b. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis
c. The presence of red, raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales.
d. The nerve caused by a virus

102. A nurse administering immunizations at health care clinic understands that an immunization will provide:
a. Natural immunity from the disease
b. Acquired immunity from the disease
c. Innate immunity from the disease
d. Protection from all diseases

103. A client with a diagnosis of gout will show which of the following in the blood:
a. Uric acid level of 8.0mg/dl
b. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dl
c. Phosphorus level of 3.0mg/dl
d. Uric acid level of 5.0mg/dl

104. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation associated with osteoarthritis:
a. Pain that is most severe later in the day
b. An elevated platelet
c. Elevated antinuclear antibody levels
d. Dull aching pain in the affected joint

105. Which of the following is abnormal if it is found in the CSF?
a. White blood cells
b. Proteins
c. Red blood cells
d. Glucose

106. Which of the following postures indicates deterioration in the dysfunction of the brain stem area?
a. Decerebrate posturing
b. Fowler’s positioning
c. Sims position
d. Flexion and pronation of the arms

107. Which of the following data indicates a potential late complication associated with Bell’s palsy?
a. Partial facial paralysis
b. Excessive tearing
c. Negative electromyography
d. Degenerated taste buds

108. The common feature in a client with Alzheimer’s disease is:
a. Difficulty in performing new tasks
b. Problems with concrete thinking
c. Recent memory loss
d. Problems with learning

109. The following are forms of liver tests except:
a. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
b. Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)
c. Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT)
d. Serum metabolic rate (SMR)

110. A client with Bell’s palsy initially presents:
a. Tingling sensations of the eyelids
b. Burning pain in the nose and intermittent facial paralysis
c. Speech or chewing difficulties accompanied by facial drop
d. Stabbing facial pain with tingling sensations in the eye

111. What will the nurse do when testing the plantar reflex of a client recovering from stroke?
a. Tap the Achilles tendon using the reflex hammer
b. Gently prick the client’s skin in the dorsum of the foot
c. Firmly strike the lateral sole of the foot and under the toe with a blunt instrument
d. Hold the sides of the client’s great toe, while moving it, ask what position it is in

112. Which of the following techniques will the nurse perform to adequately assess proprioception:
a. Tap the Achilles tendon using the reflex hammer
b. Gently prick the client’s skin in the dorsum of the foot
c. Firmly strike lateral sole of the foot and under the toe with a blunt instrument
d. Hold the sides of the client’s great toe, while moving it, ask what position it is in

113. Slow movement is described as:
a. Hypokinetics
b. Hypokinesia
c. Bradykinesia
d. Bradykinetics

114. In the body iron is more available in the form of:
a. Myofils
b. Haemosiderin
c. Ferrous
d. Ferritin

115. A boy, age 14 is admitted to the hospital with acute myelogenous leukemia and presented bruises and petechiae over his legs. Which nursing measure would best prevent additional bruising?
a. Brushing his teeth only once per day
b. Trimming his nails short
c. Handling him well with the palms of the hands
d. Gripping him in an arm-chair

116. It is important for the nurse to prevent infection in sickle cell patient because:
a. Infection kills instantly
b. Infection can cause sickling
c. Infection causes clubbing of the fingers
d. Infection causes further blood loss

117. Haemophilia, a coagulation disorder that results from deficiency of:
a. Factor IV only
b. Both factor IV and factor VIII
c. Factor VIII & IX
d. Both fact VIII and factor IV

118. Immature red blood cells are called:
a. Megakaryocytic
b. Foetal haemoglobins
c. Reticulocytes
d. Monocytes

119. The red blood cells that have a relatively low haemoglobin F have:
a. More haemoglobin S
b. Less normal haemoglobin
c. Greater life span
d. Less life span

120. Anaemia in sickle cell disease becomes evident and severe when:
a. More cells are produced
b. Erythropoiesis is suppressed
c. Hyperplasia persists
d. Less cells are produced

121. During sickle cell crisis, there is a severe pain in the:
a. Chest, abdomen and joints
b. Fingers, tongue and abdomen
c. Abdomen, breath and kidneys
d. Ear, throat and legs

122. The failure to inherit factor VIII leads to a deficient formation of:
a. Thromboplastin
b. Reticulocytes
c. Embolus
d. Renin

123. In leukemia, there is:
a. Excessive and controllable production of reticulocytes
b. Less excessive and controllable production of leucocytes
c. Excessive and ineffective production of enzymes
d. Excessive and uncontrollable production of leucocytes

124. Leukemia cells have been identified in patient suffering from:
a. Hypertension
b. Down’s syndrome
c. Paterson Brown Kelly syndrome
d. Nephritic syndrome

125. Pernicious anaemia is also called:
a. Avitaminosis
b. Koilonychia
c. Addison’s anaemia
d. Hansen’s disease

126. The normal intake of Vit. B12 is about:
a. 10-14ug
b. Over 20 ug
c. 50-70ug
d. 3-4 ug

127. In haemophilia type B, there is deficiency of:
a. Factor IV
b. Factor IX
c. Factor VII
d. Factor VIII

128. An attack of an acute rheumatic fever is related to an antecedent occurring:
a. Streptococcal throat infection
b. Viral infection
c. Tuberculosis infection
d. Gonococci infection

129. Acute myeloid leukemia is more common in children under 4 years: False

130. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is more common in children under 10 years: True

131. During acute severe blood loss the body will:
a. Inhibit erythropoiesis
b. Reduce blood flow to the peripheral structures
c. Substitute plasma with blood cells
d. Increase haemolytic process

132. Iron absorption in the body is enhanced by the presence of:
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin B6
d. Vitamin D

133. Antimetabolites include:
a. Sulphonamides and methotrexate
b. Aminoglycosides and vinblastine deconoate
c. Methotrexate and thioguanine
d. Vinblastine deconoate and ferritin

134. In the care of a patient with leukemia, the nurse must observe the patient for:
a. Eating of non-nutritious substances
b. Signs of dehydration and mental alertness
c. Signs of overhydration and pharyngitis
d. Bleeding tendencies and signs of infection

135. The presence of dysphagia and glossitis is referred to as:
a. Stevenson Johnson’s Syndrome
b. Plummer Vinson Syndrome
c. Brown’s Williams Syndrome
d. Paterson George Syndrome

136. In pancytopenia a combination of the following occurs:
i. Thrombocytopenia, anoxia, hypoxia
ii. Thrombocytopenia, gluconaemia
iii. Both anaemia and thrombocytopenia
iv. Leukopenia, anaemia and thrombocytopenia
a. I, II III
b. II only
c. IV only
d. II, III and IV

137. The following are examples of haemolytic anaemias except:
a. Haemophilia
b. G6PD
c. Sickle cell anaemia
d. Thalassaemia

138. In haemophiliacs, the swelling of the joints result from:
a. Infection
b. Bleeding
c. Bruising
d. Cholestremia

139. Acute leukemias show:
a. Mature and smaller than normal cells
b. Mature and larger than normal cells
c. Immature and smaller than normal cells
d. Immature and larger than normal cells

140. Sources of Vitamin B12 include:
a. Plant sources and animal sources
b. Plant sources only
c. Animal sources only
d. None of the above

141. In Schilling test, urine is collected for:
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 1 hour

142. In haemophilia there is a:
a. Fast clotting time
b. Delayed clotting time
c. Absence of clotting
d. All of the above

143. In all forms of leukemia, there is a:
a. Weight gain
b. Weight loss
c. Decreased leucocytosis
d. Increased appetite

144. A patient with pernicious anaemia may be given:
a. Antimetabolites
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Sulphonamides
d. Tranquilizers

145. The Schilling test is definitive test for:
a. Iron deficiency anaemia
b. Pernicious anaemia
c. Haemorrhagic anaemia
d. Haemolytic anaemia

146. Haemophilia B is also called:
a. Addison’s disease
b. Crohn’s disease
c. Christmas disease
d. Von Kelly’s disease

147. The ataxia that occurs in pernicious anaemia results from a disturbance in the:
a. Skeletal tissue
b. Nervous tissue
c. Glandular tissue
d. Connective tissue

148. Dementia often occurs in which of the following disease:
a. Pernicious anaemia
b. Addison’s syndrome
c. Aplastic anaemia
d. Haemorrhagic anaemia

149. Leucopenia in a patient makes him prone to the following except:
a. Anaemia
b. Infection
c. Bleeding
d. Somnolence

150. Thrombocytopenia in a patient makes him or her prone to:
a. Infection
b. Somnolence
c. Anaemia
d. Bleeding