NMC Past Questions on Paediatrics, Obstetric, Anatomy and Physiology Set 2

NMC Past Questions on Paediatrics, Obstetric, Anatomy and Physiology Set 2

41. After circumcision of a new born male, the most essential immediate post-operative thing to observe is:
A) Decreased urinary output
B) Haemorrhage
C) Infection
D) Shrill or piercing cry

42. The physician should be informed the following observation in a 7 year old child with fractured femur with full leg cast.
A) Cast still damp and worm after 24 hours
B) Increase urinary output
C) Inability to move the toe
D) Pedal pulse of 90 b/m

43. The following criterion is most likely to be used by the physician to select drug for a 6 year old with pneumonia
A) Child tolerance of the drug
B) Physician’s preference for the drug
C) Selectivity of the causative organism
D) Sensitivity of the causative organism

44. The most earliest sign of sexual maturity in young girls between 9 to 12 years
A) Attention to grooming
B) Increase in size of the breast
C) Interest in opposite sex
D) The appearance of axillary and pubic hair

45. In leukaemia the following occur EXCEPT
A) Decreased platelets
B) Increase white blood cell production
C) Liver remains normal
D) Normal bone marrow is replaced with blast cells

46. The phallic stage in Freud’s psychosexual development is between age;
A) 1 to 3 years
B) 3 to 5 years
C) 3 to 6 years
D) 6 to 8 years

47. The nurse understands that in patent ductus arteriosus, blood shunt
A) Aorta into the pulmonary artery
B) Inferior vena cava to left atrium
C) Left atrium to right atrium
D) Pulmonary artery to the aorta

48. A three year old child who has ingested a bleach will exhibit the following EXCEPT
A) Anxiety
B) Drooling
C) Severely burning pain in the mouth
D) Cyanosis

49. A viral infection in a child characterized by red blotchy rash and Koplik’s spot is known as;
A) Chicken pox
B) Diphtheria
C) Measles
D) Pertussis

50. In caring for a child with superficial burns, the following actions are taken EXCEPT
A) Break the blisters before dressing
B) Clean the area
C) Cover area with sterile dressing
D) Serve analgesics

51. When responding to a call of a visually impaired child on admission, it is important for the nurse to
A) Address the child when she enters the room
B) Respond to the call promptly
C) Send an orderly to attend to the child
D) Touch the child before speaking to him or her

52. The nurse would assess the following in an infant with hydrocephalus
A) Abdominal girth
B) Fontanels
C) Urinary output
D) Vital signs

53. The most critical factor in the immediate care of an infant after repair of cleft lip is
A) Administration of drugs to reduce oral secretions
B) Administration of intravenous infusion
C) Maintenance of patent airway
D) Prevention of vomiting

54. How long after birth physiological jaundice usually occurs
A) 24 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 72 hours
D) 1 week

55. Rhesus incompatibility usually occurs when the mother
A) And foetus are both rhesus
B) And foetus are both rhesus positive
C) Is rhesus negative and foetus is rhesus positive
D) Is blood group O and foetus is group AB

56. The first step in the management of toxic substances is
A) Administer appropriate antidote
B) Administer supportive and symptomatic care
C) Prevent further absorption
D) Remove obvious remnants

57. The following is the best way to detect fluid retention in a child with nephrotic syndrome
A) A measurement of abdominal girth daily at the same time
B) Monitoring of the amount of 24 hours urine collected daily at same time
C) Monitoring of child’s weight daily at the same time
D) None of the above

58. Which of the following disease condition in vitamin B1 deficiency
A) Beriberi
B) Mumps
C) Pellagra
D) Scurvy

59. In assessing a 2-month old infant the nurse expects the child to
A) Bang hold object together
B) Raise hand chest and can hold in position
C) Roll from supine to prone position
D) Sits alone, uses hands for support

60. At which age in the developmental stages is an infant expected to have first tooth eruption?
A) 3-4 months
B) 5-9 months
C) 10-12 months
D) 13-18 months

61. An infant with birth weight 2,500mg without regards to gestational age is termed as
A) Intra uterine growth retardation
B) Low birth weight
C) Preterm
D) Small for date

62. Which of the following is a causative organism for pemphigus neonatorium
A) Candida albican
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus
D) Varicella zoster

63. In caring for a child with sickle cell crisis the most important nursing intervention would be
A) Give iron supplement
B) Maintenance of adequate nutrition
C) Prevention of infection
D) Relief of pain

64. When teaching a mother how to administer eye drop to a 5-year old child the nurse should ask her to place the drop
A) Anywhere that makes contact with the eye surface
B) Inside the lower eyelid
C) On the sclera as the child looks to the side
D) Under the upper eyelid

65. A 5-month old child develops severe diarrhoea and has been put on IV fluids. The nurse must observe the rate of flow to
A) Avoid fluid getting into the tissue
B) Prevent cardiac overload
C) Prevent increased urinary output
D) Replace all fluids lost

66. A child in sickle cell crisis will need the following
I. Analgesic
II. Exercise
III. Plenty of fluid
IV. Warmth
A) II and II
B) II and IV
C) IV and I
D) I, III and IV

67. The nurse suspect bleeding when a child who has had tonsillectomy
A) Becomes pale
B) Complains of thirst
C) Cough persistently
D) Swallows frequently

68. Which of the following will make you suspect that a child with measles is developing bronchopneumonia
A) Increase pulse rate
B) Increased respiration
C) Redness of eye
D) Wheezing respiration

69. The nurses’ immediate action when a child is rushed in with severe diarrhoea and vomiting will be
A) Keep child warm in bed
B) Prepare trolley for intravenous infusion
C) Reassure mother of safety of the child in the hospital
D) Start oral rehydrated therapy
A) I and II
B) II and IV
C) II,III and IV
D) I, II, III and IV

70. How would you reduce anxiety in a child on admission
I. Changing nurses daily
II. Confining child to bed
III. Involving parent in the care
IV. Seeing familiar faces daily
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) III and IV
D) I, II and III

71. The presence of parents during painful procedure on their toddler should be
A) Based on individual assessment of the parent
B) Based on the type of procedure to be performed
C) Discourage for the benefit of the parent and the child
D) Encourage and permitted if the child desires their presence

72. The most important nursing intervention for a 3-year old child with nephrotic syndrome is
A) Encourage fluids
B) Maintaining bed rest
C) Prevention of infection
D) Regulating the diet

73. Which of the following children should a nurse in the out-patient department see first
A) An 18 months old with jaundice
B) A 4-year old with nephrotic syndrome
C) 12 months old with febrile convulsion
D) 2 years old with sickle cell crisis

74. A 6 year old child is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. An immediate priority in the child’s nursing care would be
A) Nutrition
B) Medication
C) Reassurance
D) Rest

75. When caring for a neonate with an imperforate anus, the nurse should observe the urine for
A) Acetone
B) Bile
C) Blood
D) Meconium

76. A child with acute leukaemia is put on prednisolone and other drugs. One side effect of prednisolone is
A) Alopecia
B) Anorexia
C) Mood changes
D) Weight loss

77. One of the complication of pinworm infections is
A) Appendicitis
B) Hepatitis
C) Pneumonia
D) Stomatis

78. A child sitting on a chair in the playroom begins a tonic seizure with a clenched jaw. What should the nurse do?
A) Attempt to open the jaw
B) Lower the child to the floor
C) Place a large pillow under the head
D) Shout for assistance

79. A primary task to be accomplished between 12 and 15 months of age is to start
A) Climbing stairs
B) Say simple words
C) Use a cup
D) Walk erect

80. The following are common childhood communicable disease EXCEPT
A) Measles
B) Pneumonia
C) Tuberculosis
D) Whooping cough

81. An infant should be able to hold its head erect at
A) 1 month
B) 2 month
C) 3 month
D) 4 month

82. Permanent dentition begins at/around what age(in years)
A) 2 years
B) 4 years
C) 6 years
D) 8 years

83. If a child develops a reaction during blood transfusion the nurse should
A) Call the paediatrician
B) Relief symptoms with drugs
C) Slow the flow rate
D) Stop the transfusion

84. A 9 year old boy with acute lymphocyte leukaemia having prednisolone and vincristine complain of constipation. What is the cause of the constipation
A) Enlarged spleen obstructing the bowel
B) Leukaemia mass obstructing the bowel
C) Side effect of vincristine
D) Toxic effect of prednisolone