NMC Past Questions on Paediatrics, Obstetric, Anatomy and Physiology Set 6

NMC Past Questions on Paediatrics, Obstetric, Anatomy and Physiology Set 6

201. A patient with enteritis would be placed on this diet
A) High carbohydrate
B) High residue
C) Low fat
D) Low residue

202. Increased blood pressure with bounding pulse and a complaint of headache during infusion is indicative of
A) Air embolism
B) Fluid overload
C) Hypoglycaemia
D) Sepsis

203. Which of the following is responsible for Haemophilia ‘A’?
A) VIII
B) IX
C) X
D) XIII

204. Which of these would be LEAST helpful in communicating with an aphasic Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA)?
A) Allowing plenty of time for patient to respond
B) Completing the sentence that patient cannot finish
C) Looking directly at patient during attempt at speech
D) Speaking to the patient at a lower rate

205. The MOST sensitive indicator of all cardiac enzymes in myocardial cell damage is
A) Alkaline phosphate
B) Creatine kinase
C) Lactic dehydrogenase
D) Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase

206. An intravenous analgesic is frequently administered to relieve chest pain associated with myocardial infarction. The drug of choice is usually
A) Codeine sulphate
B) Hydromorphine hydrochloride
C) Meperidine hydrochloride
D) Morphine sulphate

207. The basic cause of angina pectoris is believed to be
A) Dysrhythmias triggered by stress
B) Insufficient coronary blood flow
C) Emboli found in the coronary vessels
D) Spasms of the vessel walls owing to excessive secretion of adrenaline

208. Which of the following instructions would you give to a patient with pulmonary emboli on discharge?
A) Dorsiflex your feet several times, hourly whilst sitting
B) Do postural drainage exercise on waking up and at bed time
C) Increase your fluid intake daily to one litre
D) Sleep with the head of your bed elevated thirty to forty degrees

209. Which of these interventions would prevent respiratory complication in caring for an elderly patient on bed rest?
A) Changing the position every 2 hours
B) Decreasing oral fluid intake
C) Holding the breath every hour
D) Monitoring vital signs every shift

210. Which of the following assignments would you give to a nursing assistant?
A) Administering medication
B) Giving evacuate enema
C) Patient teaching after discharge
D) Giving blood transfusion

211. Subcutaneous injection is given for the following reasons. When
I. Small volume of the drug is required
II. Slow absorption is a priority
III. The drug is not likely to damage the superficial tissue
IV. The drug is not likely to damage the muscles
A) I, II and III
B) I, II and IV
C) I, II and IV
D) I, II, III and IV

212. Precautions to be taken during oxygen administration include the following EXCEPT
A) Avoid naked flames or fire
B) Apply alcohol on patient’s skin
C) Do not use oil on the oxygen cylinder
D) Keep cylinder in a cool place

213. Nursing diagnosis represents the
A) Assessment of client data
B) Actual nursing intervention
C) Client’s health problems
D) Proposed plan of care

214. The most common symptom of pruritus is
A) A rash
B) Itching
C) Flaking
D) Pain

215. Which of the following is a symptom of increased intracranial pressure?
A) Facial flushing
B) Photophobia
C) Tachycardia
D) Vomiting

216. In inspecting the turbinate’s of a patient, which instrument should the nurse use?
A) Ear speculum
B) Laryngoscope
C) Nasal speculum
D) Otoscope

217. An important component of the physical examination in relation to nursing process is
A) A holistic approach to the assessment phase
B) Completion of the nursing evaluation phase
C) Establishment of baseline for the patient
D) The generation of a definitive nursing diagnosis

218. When evaluating the extracellular fluid volume deficit state (ECFVD), the nurse should initially assess the patient for
A) Cardiac arrhythmias
B) Polyuria
C) Signs of dehydration
D) Trousseau’s sign

219. A patient suffering from coronary artery disease is MOST likely at risk of developing
A) Extracellular fluid volume excess
B) Hyperosmolar fluid volume deficit
C) Intracellular fluid volume deficit
D) Iso-osmolar fluid volume deficit

220. Osteoarthritis is associated with the following signs and symptoms EXCEPT
A) Bouchard’s nodes
B) Pannus formation
C) Tenderness of the joint
D) Joint pain

221. The nurse knows that the most critical time period for diagnosis of myocardial infarction is
A) Between the third and fifth day after the attack
B) The first hour after symptoms begin
C) Within 24 hours of the onset of symptoms
D) Within the first 48 hours after the attack

222. The following are composition of urine EXCEPT
A) Ammonia
B) Bromides
C) Chlorides
D) Oxalates

223. The basis or framework used to evaluate the patient’s response to nursing intervention can be found in the nursing
A) Care plan
B) Diagnosis
C) Goals
D) Interventions

224. A decrease in peristalsis noted in an older client by the nurse is most likely to result
A) Bowel incontinence
B) Constipation
C) Fluid volume deficit
D) Impaired swallowing

225. Which of the following laboratory tests would the nurse monitor when a client is receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin) therapy?
A) Arterial blood gases
B) Serum potassium
C) Prothrombin time (P.T)
D) Partial thromboplastin time (P.T.)

226. What measure would the nurse employ to ensure that a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) does not develop osmotic diuresis as a complication?
A) Administer the solution slowly
B) Keep infusion at room temperature
C) Monitor the flow rate carefully
D) Protect the solution from light

227. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with bulimia patients?
A) Denial of abnormal eating
B) Depression
C) Fear of thinness
D) Social withdrawal

228. The nurse assists the patient to assume which position for insertion of gastrointestinal tube?
A) High fowler’s
B) Recumbent
C) Lateral
D) Supine

229. Nursing assessment of a patient with liver failure would include observation of
A) Abnormal bleeding
B) Diarrhoea
C) Hypotension
D) Hypothermia

230. The hormone aldosterone is produced by the
A) Adrenal cortex
B) Adrenal medulla
C) Adrenal matrix
D) Adrenal parenchyma

231. The extent of a patient’s renal damage would be reflected by the results of this blood test
A) Alkaline phosphatase
B) Creatinine
C) Potassium
D) Uric acid

232. Why should a client’s bowel be cleansed before intravenous pyelogram? To
A) Facilitate passage of the cystoscope into the urethra
B) Minimize his discomfort during the process
C) Promote visualization of the kidney’s, ureters and bladder
D) Permit maximum filling of the bladder with the radio-opaque dye

233. Hypoglycaemia is associated with
A) Facial flushing
B) Pruritus
C) Thirst
D) Tremors

234. Insulin is not taken orally because
A) Molecules are too large to be absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract
B) It inhibits the action of pancreatic digestive enzymes
C) It causes ulceration of gastrointestinal tract
D) It is destroyed by gastrointestinal enzymes

235. Which of the following under listed statements is a symptom of meningitis?
A) A negative Babinski response
B) Areas of paraesthesia of lower extremities
C) Peri-orbital oedema
D) Resistance to neck flexion

236. Which of these exercises would you prescribed for a client after an acute phase of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Cycling
B) Jumping
C) Running
D) Swimming

237. The achievement of haemostasis would be indicative first by a decrease in
A) Blood pressure
B) Pulse rate
C) Respiration
D) Temperature

238. Which of these positions is BEST for a client on heparin with phlebitis?
A) Low-Fowler’s with legs elevated
B) Reverse Trendelenburg’s
C) Supine with legs flexed
D) Lateral with legs flexed

239. The purpose of dexamethasone administration is to
A) Alleviate pain
B) Promote urinary diuresis
C) Prevent infection
D) Reduce intracranial swelling

240. A child has rheumatoid fever which of the following nursing measures is likely to be most effective in minimizing his joint pains?
A) Applies ice to the affected joints
B) Limits movement of the affected joints
C) Massages the affected joints
D) Puts affected joints through range of the motion exercise