NMC Past Questions on General Paper Set 2

NMC Past Questions on General Paper Set 2

51. Hookworm infestation can be prevented by
A) Daily bath
B) Drinking clean water
C) Regular hand washing
D) Wearing of foot wear

52. The route of BCG administration is
A) Intradermally
B) Intra muscularly
C) Intravenously
D) Subcutaneously

53. Diarrhoea in children usually results in death due to excessive fluid loss in the body…..
A) Anorexia
B) Dehydration
C) Hydration
D) Lethargy

54. One advantage of female sterilization is that, it is
A) Highly effective
B) Irreversible
C) Performed by a specialist
D) Slightly risky

55. The IUD prevents pregnancy by
A) Interfering with migration of sperm to fallopian tubes
B) Interfering with transportation of ovum into the uterus
C) Making cervical secretions thicker
D) Suppressing ovulation

56. Household purification of water includes the following EXCEPT
A) Boiling
B) Chemical disinfection
C) Distillation
D) Filtration

57. If a child develops a reaction during blood transfusion the nurse should
A) Call the paediatrician
B) Relieve the symptoms with drugs
C) Slow the flow rate
D) Stop the blood immediately

58. Which of the following medication would the nurse question when ordered for relieve of discomfort in a child with Leukaemia?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B) Acetaminophen with codeine
C) Ibuprofen
D) Propoxyphene hydrochloride (Darron)

59. The MOST effective way of helping an infant with cleft lip and palate to retain oral feedings is to
A) Bubble the infant at frequent intervals
B) Feed the infant small amount at a time
C) Maintain the infant in a lying position while feeding
D) Put the end of the nipple far to the back of the infant’s tongue

60. Ovulation occurs at the
A) End of proliferative and end menstrual phase
B) End proliferative and onset of secretory
C) Onset of proliferative and end of menstrual phase
D) Onset of regenerative and end of proliferative phase

61. An erectile cavernous structure below the symphysis pubis… in women is known as…?
A) Mons Veneris
B) A penile structure
C) Symphysis pubis
D) Clitoris

62. Which of the underlisted is a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A) Amenorrrhoea
B) Braxton Hicks contractions
C) Uterine growth
D) Osiander’s signs

63. What immediate action would you take when a pregnant woman complains of faintness at the antenatal clinic?
A) Find out from her if she has eaten
B) Inform the doctor immediately about her condition
C) Help her to sit or lie down on her side
D) Tell her to learn against the wall and close the eyes

64. Which of these can be precipitated by pregnancy?
A) Diabetes
B) Eclampsia
C) Pre-eclampsia
D) Jaundice
E) I, II and III

65. Aims of abdominal examination in pregnancy include?
A) Foetal abnormality
B) Foetal growth
C) Foetal health
D) Foetal size
E) I, II, III and IV

66. A membrane, situated about 2 cm from the vestibule… is referred to as…?
A) The hymen
B) The vestibule
C) The mons veneris
D) The clitoris

67. The diet recommended for a mother with pregnancy induced hypertension should include?
A) Copious fluids and low calorie
B) High calorie and fibre
C) High protein, low salt and vitamins
D) Low salt and fibre diet

68. A ten week pregnant woman complains of heart burns. To relieve this discomfort the nurse would advise her to do the following EXCEPT?
A) Avoid bending over
B) Lie on the left side
C) Sleep with more pillows
D) Take small meal at a time

69. A woman with 32 weeks amenorrhoea was brought… with a history of finding herself lying in a pool of blood… This may be result of
A) Cervical bleeding
B) Placenta abruption
C) Placenta praevia
D) Vulvovaginal varicoscities

70. The first medical contact in a healthy woman with pregnancy offers opportunity… EXCEPT?
A) Specific dresses for pregnancy
B) Establish baselines on pregnancy
C) Detect abnormalities of pregnancy
D) Determine gestation date

71. What would be considered the MOST important factor in determining the progress of labour?
A) Cervical dilatation
B) Decent of head
C) Maternal condition
D) Uterine contraction

72. The first stage of true labor starts with?
A) Appearance of “show”
B) Backache and pain in the loin
C) Effacement of the cervix
D) Regular rhythmic uterine contractions

73. Emesis gravidarium may be prevented by the following EXCEPT…?
A) The pregnant woman should stay indoor
B) Eat before getting out of bed each morning to prevent an empty stomach
C) Bland foods: like dry toast or saltine crackers are good choices
D) Prevent triggers, like strong smells, that make you feel nauseous

74. An extreme form of morning sickness that causes severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy is termed……?
A) Nauseating ailment
B) Hyperemesis gravidarum
C) Morning sickness
D) Pregnancy disorders

75. In managing heartburns in pregnancy, the under-listed may be a remedy EXCEPT…?
A) Brief mother on the baby’s condition
B) Eat slowly and chew every bite thoroughly
C) Eating 2-3hours before bed instead of a few hours before bed
D) Stop foods and beverages that trigger heartburn

76. The organisms responsible for maintenance of vaginal acidity are?
A) Doderleins bacilli
B) E. coli
C) Monilia albicans
D) Streptococci

77. Which pituitary hormone stimulates the ovary to produce oestrogen?
A) Follicle stimulating hormone
B) Luteinizing hormone
C) Oxytocin
D) Prolactin

78. The non-pregnant uterus measures
A) 5cm:7.5cm: 2.5cm
B) 5mls:7.5mls: 2.5cm
C) 5mm:7.5mm: 2.5mm
D) 15kg:7.5kg: 2.5kg

79. The termination of pregnancy prior or before 24 weeks (28 weeks) of gestation or a fetal weight of < 500g is
A) Demolition of foetus
B) Abortion or miscarriage
C) Termination of pregnancy
D) Prematurity of the foetus

80. Which of the following is NOT maternal causes of abortion?
A) Retroverted uterus
B) Developmental defects of the uterus e.g. infantile or bicornuate uterus
C) Uterine fibroids and Cervical incompetence
D) Anal sex

81. The following are types of Miscarriage EXCEPT?
A) Threatened or Inevitable abortion
B) Incomplete/ Complete
C) Silent/delay/missed/Septic abortion
D) Medical abortion

82. Which of the following statement are TRUE about the vulva?
A) The urethral orifice lies 2.5cm below the clitoris
B) The bartholin glands are located in the vestibule
C) The prepuce are folds of skins attached to the under surface of the clitoris
D) The introitus occupies the posterior two third of the vestibule
E) I and II

83. This is a term that applied to an abnormal gross development of the trophoblast…
A) Molar pregnancy
B) Hydatidiform mole
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Uterine pregnancy

84. The various methods of palpation on pregnant abdomen are ……. EXCEPT?
A) Fundal palpation
B) Lateral palpation
C) Pawlik palpation
D) Deep fascia palpation

85. The separation of the placenta from its site of implantation before the delivery of the fetus is known as….?
A) Premature delivery
B) Prematurity of placenta
C) Placental abruption
D) Abnormal placentae

86. Which of following management strategy of third trimester bleeding may NOT be appropriate in stabilizing the mother?
A) A two Large-bore IV cannula
B) Place patient in Trendelenburg position
C) Educate the husband immediately
D) Crossmatch for 4 units of blood

87. Which of the under-listed is TRUE concerning the effects of placenta previa on pregnancy and labor…?
A) Postpartum hemorrhage
B) Fetal malformation
C) High incidence of fetal hypoxia and mortality and or maternal shock and death
D) All of the above

88. …………………is the surgical treatment for cervical incompetence.
A) Shirodkar operation or cervical cerclage
B) Hysterectomy
C) Laparotomy
D) Manual Vacuum aspiration

89. What happens once a diagnosis is made after ultrasound scanning?
A) Present all of the facts survival, morbidity, quality of life
B) Allow the couple time to process the information
C) Provide them with additional resources eg genetic counselor, social workers and literature
D) All the above

90. A fibromuscular tube extending from the vulva to the uterus forming an angle of 60° with the horizontal plane is known as….?
A) Fallopian tube
B) Uterus
C) Vagina
D) Ovary

91. A purse-string stitch of strong non-absorbable suture material is tied around the cervix… in order to…?
A) Tighten up the expectant mother
B) Ensure pregnancy goes to term
C) Prevent sexual intercourse
D) Try the pregnancy

92. The anterior and posterior length of the vagina wall is respectively…….?
A) 8-9 cm and 10 -11 cm
B) 8-9 mls and 10 -11 mls
C) 6-9 cm and 10 -15 cm
D) 3-6 cm and 6 -19 cm

93. Fundus of the uterus lies
A) Below the insertion of the fallopian tubes
B) Above the insertion of the fallopian tubes
C) Beside the insertion of the fallopian tubes
D) Above the insertion of the ovaries

94. Which part of the fallopian tubes does fertilization normally takes place?
A) Isthmus
B) Ampulla
C) Infundibulum
D) Tubal ostium

95. This term is used when a patient has had three or more consecutive spontaneous abortions
A) Habitual or recurrent abortion
B) Multiparity
C) Spontaneous abortion
D) Simultaneous abortion

96. Cervical incompetence can be due to
A) Congenital weakness of the cervix
B) Trauma from previous dilatation and curettage
C) Laceration from previous child birth is the commonest cause
D) All the above

97. The function of the prostate gland is to
A) Assist spermatozoa to mature
B) Produce lubricant for the urethra
C) Produce spermatozoa
D) Secrete testosterone

98. In management of placenta previa the nurse midwife must ensure
A) Bed rest and restriction of physical activity for at least 24 hours after admission
B) Avoid constipation, enemas, and vaginal and rectal examinations
C) Continuous observation of bleeding and signs of shock and listening to FHR every 4 hours
D) All the above

99. Active management of the third stage of labour includes the following EXCEPT
A) Administration of uterotonic immediately after delivery of baby
B) Controlled cord traction
C) Uterine massage
D) Waiting for placenta to deliver spontaneously without intervention

100. The hormone responsible for milk production is
A) Oxytocin
B) Estrogen
C) Prolactin
D) Progesterone