NMC Past Questions on General Paper

1. Obtaining informed consent is the responsibility of the……?
A) Nurse
B) Nurse assistant
C) Physician
D) Nurse-in-charge
2. Badasu complained to the nurse manager that she had been given an injection without consent. Which offence would the nurse be charged with?
A) Technical assault
B) Malfeasance
C) Hypochondriasis
D) Somatization order
3. Mrs, Ntow has been very tensed, restless and preoccupied all day. Which of the following activities would you prescribe for her?
A) Going for a walk with the nurse
B) Participating in a quiz
C) Playing a board game
D) Reading a book
4. Some aggressive incidents may be prevented by the nurses who have a sound knowledge of the individual patient. This is because the nurse will…..?
A) Be able to report objectively about the patient after any violent episode
B) Be able to anticipate many situations that may threaten violence
C) Obsessive compulsive personality disorder
D) Knows the patient’s weakness
5. Select from the list below clinical features that are commonly found in dementia.
A) Amnesia and confabulation
B) Confabulation
C) retardation and amnesia
D) Verbigeration
6. Informed consent is a method that promotes?
A) Autonomy
B) Beneficence
C) Justice
D) Non malfeasance
7. Which one of this behavioural modification is used to produce deterrent to drinking of alcohol in an alcoholic?
A) Antabuse
B) Hypnosis
C) Relaxation technique
D) Systematic desensitization
8. A fail to settle her hospital bill and is not allowed to go home by the nurse on duty. Which legal offences will she be charged with?
A) Tort
B) Misdemeanor
C) Invasion of privacy
D) False imprisonment
9. Ethical principles for professional nursing practice in a clinical setting are guided by the principles of conduct that are written as the:
A) Good Samaritan laws for civil guidelines
B) Ghana Registered Nurses and Midwives Association Act
C) Nursing and Midwifery Council Code of Ethics
D) Standards of Care from experts in practice
10. A retired nurse stops to help in an emergency at the scene of an accident. If the injured party files suit the nurse would probably be covered by …….?
A) Her automobile insurance
B) Her home owner’s insurance
C) National Care Act
D) The Good Samaritan Law
11. The tendency of a demented patient leaving his/her home unnoticed to a familiar place and could not recall land mark features to trace his/her way home is known as…………
A) Anterograde amnesia
B) Dissociative amnesia
C) Visuol spatial orientation
D) Wandering
12. An expression of “doctor shopping” is a characteristic behavior of clients with the diagnosis of:
A) Body dysmorphic disorder
B) Conversion disorder
C) Hypochondriasis
D) Post-traumatic stress disorder
13. This treatment involves killing cancer cells by freezing them with liquid nitrogen.
A) Cryosurgery
B) Pyeyosurgery
C) Oesteosurgery
D) Enchondroma
14. A condition in which the spine in the upper back has an excessive curvature is called?
A) Bowleg
B) Spine deformity
C) Bone waxing
D) Kyphosis
15. A chronic bone disorder that typically results in enlarged, deformed bones due to excessive breakdown and formation of bone tissue… is ?
A) Paget disease
B) Bone disorder
C) Kyphosis
D) Verome
16. A condition where there is an increased inner curvature of the spine just above the buttocks is?
A) Paget disease
B) Bone disorder
C) Kyphosis
D) Lordosis
17. Which of the following is NOT a cause of osteomyelitis?
A) Penetrating wound to bones
B) Fractures (compound)
C) Dermatitis of the bones
D) Diseases such as sickle cell
18. Which of the following is the surgical management of osteomyelitis?
A) Sequestrectomy (removal of the dead bone)
B) Bone degenerative surgery
C) Open reduction
D) Debridement of wounds
19. The reduction of total bone mass with high rate of bone resorption greater than bone formation is….?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Menopause
C) Osteomyelitis
D) Bone decay
20. A condition in which the bone becomes brittle, porous, fragile and lighter is……?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Menopause
C) Osteomyelitis
D) Bone resorption
21. The metabolic bone disease characterized by bone demineralization is….?
A) Paget disease
B) Osteomalacia
C) Kyphosis
D) Lordosis
22. A ……………is a narrowing in any part of the urethra where there is impairment of normal urine flow.
A) Bladder blockade
B) Narrowed vessels
C) Urethral stricture
D) Ureter stones
23. Nasal traumas/fractures can occur as a result of any of the following except?
A) In contact sports & fights
B) Depressed or deviated Nasal Bone
C) Nonaccidental fretting
D) Simple or Compound of the nose
24. Which of the equipment below is NOT required for the removal of foreign bodies in the ear?
A) Otoscope with removable lens
B) Sponge holding otoscope
C) Bayonet forceps
D) Alligator forceps
25. Trachoma is caused by the bacterium called…?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Herpes zoster virus
C) Henisorus americanus
D) Syphilis
26. The process of stone formation in urinary system is called….?
A) Nephrolithiasis or urolithiasis
B) Ectopic stones
C) Renal tissue emolization
D) Uterocalculi
27. Acute hemorrhage from the nostril… could be due to the following except…?
A) Trauma to the head/face
B) Non vigorous nose blowing
C) Nasal defects (deflected)
D) Hypertension
28. In anterior epistaxis there is
A) Echymosis
B) Oedema
C) Renal blood loss
D) Blood is bright red
29. All the following are features of bulimia nervosa EXCEPT
A) Intense fear of obesity
B) Distortion of body image
C) A known physical illness is present
D) Amenorrhoea
30. What is considered to be the most important cause of anorexia nervosa?
A) Adolescent adjustment difficulties
B) Early weaning from breast /bottle
C) Simple phobia
D) Endocrine disorders
31. To be effective in meeting various ethnic needs the nurse should:
A) Act as if he or she is comfortable with the client’s behaviour
B) Avoid asking questions about the client’s cultural background
C) Be aware of client’s cultural differences
D) Treat all clients alike
32. Kofi angrily accuses you of trying to poison him when you offer him his medication. This is…?
A) Displacement
B) Rationalization
C) Sublimation
D) Projection
33. Which of the following activities would you consider most helpful to the schizophrenics?
A) Attending a social dance and playing monopoly
B) Going for a walk and needle work
C) Needle work and reading a magazine
D) Reading magazine and Attending a social dance
34. When signing a form as a witness, your signature shows that the client:
A) Is fully informed and is aware of all consequences
B) Was awake and fully alert and not medicated with narcotics
C) Was free to sign without pressure and understands the language of the form
D) All of the above
35. Which statement about an institutional ethics committee is correct?
A) The ethics committee is an additional resource for clients and health care professionals
B) The ethics committee relieves health care professionals from dealing with ethical issues
C) The ethics committee would be the first option in addressing an ethical dilemma
D) The ethics committee replaces decision making by the client and health care providers
36. The philosophy sometimes called the code of ethics of care suggests that ethical dilemmas can best be solved by attention to
A) Relationships
B) The client
C) The code of ethics
D) The faith
37. The nurse puts a restraint jacket on a client without the client’s permission and without the physician’s order. The nurse may be guilty of assault.
A) True
B) False
C) Vilification
D) Don’t know
38. The failure of the nurse to question the physician about an order creates an area of ——- because this is
A) Liability on the doctor’s part
B) Liability on the nurse’s part
C) Liability on the hospital administrator’s part
D) Liability on the client’s part
39. The nurse is obligated to follow a physician’s order unless:
A) The order is a verbal order
B) The order is illegible
C) The order has not been transcribed
D) The order is an error, violates hospital policy, or would be detrimental to the client
40. The following are crucial needs of the dying client EXCEPT….
A) Financial resources
B) Control of pain
C) Preservation of dignity
D) Self-worth, love and belonging
41. What are the stages of dying according to Elizabeth Kubler-Ross?
A) Numbing; yearning and searching; disorganization and despair; and reorganization.
B) Accepting the reality of loss…
C) Anticipatory grief, perceived loss, actual loss, and renewal.
D) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
42. To prevent food contamination, the Basic precaution to take is
A) Emptying of dustbins
B) Using of handkerchiefs
C) Washing of fruits
D) Washing of hands
43. The Golden Rule of pest control is achieved by
A) Keeping area clean
B) Killing with pesticides
C) Removal of food scrubs
D) Use of bins with fitted lids
E) I, II and IV
44. The School Health Nurse has the following responsibilities EXCEPT
A) Assist in the formulation of health policies for the school.
B) Control communicable diseases by immunization.
C) Observe pupils daily whether functioning well.
D) Provide counseling to both pupils and parents.
45. To train a child to acquire good habits, ensure that he/she
A) Brushed the teeth at most once a day.
B) Greets friends on their way to school.
C) Sleeping with other siblings before adults.
D) Washes hands thoroughly before eating.
46. At what AGE should a newborn child receive BCG and Polio?
A) Birth
B) One months
C) Two weeks
D) Sex weeks
47. At what age should a child start receiving vitamin A supplementation capsules?
A) Birth
B) Eleven
C) Six Month
D) Twelve months
48. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method of family planning is best practiced by
A) Two weeks
B) Four weeks
C) Six weeks
D) Eight weeks
49. School health service involves all EXCEPT
A) Confirmation of current immunization status of pupils
B) Comprehensive assessment and management of care
C) Health promotion to promote healthy behaviors
D) Reduction in maternal mortality
50. Malaria can be eradicated by
A) Keeping surroundings clean to prevent mosquito breeding
B) Sleeping under insecticide treated nets
C) Spraying all adult mosquitoes
D) Use of mosquito netting on doors and windows
E) I, II and IV

