NMC Past Questions on General Paper Set 4

NMC Past Questions on General Paper Set 4

151. The drug of choice for treatment of severe malaria in pregnancy is
A) Chloroquine
B) Artesunate injection
C) Sulfadoxine-Pyrimethamine
D) Quinine tablets

152. IPTp for malaria in pregnancy is given as
A) 1 dose
B) 3 or more doses of SP
C) 5 doses
D) Monthly for 9 months

153. The best time to start ANC is
A) As soon as pregnancy is confirmed
B) 12 weeks
C) 20 weeks
D) 28 weeks

154. A pregnant woman should gain approximately
A) 3-5kg
B) 10-12kg
C) 15-18kg
D) 20kg

155. The purpose of TT immunization in pregnancy is to prevent
A) Malaria
B) Neonatal tetanus
C) HIV
D) Anaemia

156. A pregnant woman with severe anaemia has Hb less than
A) 10g/dl
B) 7g/dl
C) 8g/dl
D) 9g/dl

157. The best position during the second stage of labour is
A) Lithotomy
B) Whatever position the woman finds comfortable
C) Supine
D) Prone

158. Cord prolapse is an emergency because it can cause
A) Infection
B) Fetal hypoxia
C) Bleeding
D) Uterine rupture

159. Shoulder dystocia refers to
A) Breech delivery
B) Impaction of fetal shoulders after head delivery
C) Face presentation
D) Cord around neck

160. The 4th stage of labour lasts for
A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 2 hours
D) 24 hours

161. After delivery, the uterus should be at the level of
A) Xiphisternum
B) Umbilicus
C) Symphysis pubis
D) 2cm below umbilicus

162. Subinvolution of the uterus is suspected when
A) Uterus is firm
B) Uterus is larger than expected for days postpartum
C) Lochia is scanty
D) No bleeding

163. Breast engorgement is best relieved by
A) Stopping breastfeeding
B) Frequent breastfeeding and warm compress
C) Cold compress only
D) Antibiotics

164. Mastitis is characterized by
A) Painful, red, hot breast with fever
B) Painful, red, hot breast with fever
C) Hard breast without pain
D) Milky discharge

165. The recommended spacing between pregnancies is
A) 6 months
B) At least 2 years
C) 1 year
D) 3 months

166. A method of family planning that is 99% effective and reversible is
A) Condoms
B) IUCD
C) Withdrawal
D) Rhythm method

167. Depo-Provera is given every
A) 1 month
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 year

168. The side effect of combined oral contraceptives includes
A) Weight loss
B) Nausea and breast tenderness
C) Increased fertility
D) Hair growth

169. Emergency contraception should be taken within
A) 24 hours
B) 72-120 hours
C) 1 week
D) 2 weeks

170. Male sterilization is called
A) Tubal ligation
B) Vasectomy
C) Hysterectomy
D) Castration

171. The normal newborn reflex that disappears by 4 months is
A) Sucking reflex
B) Moro reflex
C) Grasp reflex
D) Rooting reflex

172. Teething in infants usually starts at
A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 12 months

173. The EPI schedule in Ghana includes how many contacts
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9

174. Penta vaccine protects against
A) TB only
B) DPT + Hep B + Hib
C) Polio only
D) Measles only

175. Rota virus vaccine prevents
A) Pneumonia
B) Severe diarrhea
C) Malaria
D) Meningitis

176. Pneumococcal vaccine prevents
A) Diarrhea
B) Pneumonia and meningitis
C) Measles
D) Yellow fever

177. A child with pneumonia will present with
A) Diarrhea
B) Fast breathing and chest indrawing
C) Fever only
D) Vomiting

178. IMCI stands for
A) Integrated Management of Child Illness
B) Integrated Management of Childhood Illness
C) International Management of Child Infection
D) Integrated Monitoring of Child Immunization

179. The first line drug for uncomplicated malaria in children is
A) Artesunate injection
B) ACT – Artemisinin Combination Therapy
C) Chloroquine
D) SP

180. Severe dehydration is treated with
A) ORS
B) IV fluids – Ringer’s Lactate
C) Zinc
D) Antibiotics

181. Zinc supplementation in diarrhea is given for
A) 3 days
B) 10-14 days
C) 1 month
D) 6 months

182. A febrile convulsion is caused by
A) Epilepsy
B) High fever
C) Meningitis
D) Hypoglycemia

183. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses
A) Pain
B) Level of consciousness
C) Vital signs
D) Reflexes

184. CPR ratio for 1 rescuer in adults is
A) 15:2
B) 30:2
C) 5:1
D) 10:2

185. The normal urine output for an adult is
A) 10ml/hr
B) 30ml/hr
C) 100ml/hr
D) 500ml/hr

186. A patient with oliguria produces less than
A) 100ml/24hrs
B) 400ml/24hrs
C) 500ml/24hrs
D) 1000ml/24hrs

187. The normal blood glucose level fasting is
A) 2.5-3.5mmol/L
B) 3.5-6.0mmol/L
C) 7.0-10.0mmol/L
D) 10-15mmol/L

188. Diabetes mellitus type 1 is due to
A) Insulin resistance
B) Absolute insulin deficiency
C) Obesity
D) Pregnancy

189. Hypoglycemia presents with
A) Polyuria
B) Sweating, tremors, confusion
C) Weight gain
D) Blurred vision only

190. The 5 rights of drug administration include all EXCEPT
A) Right patient
B) Right dose
C) Right diagnosis
D) Right route

191. Anaphylaxis is treated with
A) Paracetamol
B) Adrenaline IM
C) Antihistamine only
D) IV fluids only

192. The best site for venepuncture is
A) Femoral vein
B) Median cubital vein
C) Jugular vein
D) Dorsal foot vein

193. Sterilization by autoclaving is done at
A) 100°C for 10mins
B) 121°C for 15-20mins
C) 160°C for 30mins
D) 70°C for 1hr

194. Surgical hand scrub should last for
A) 30 seconds
B) 3-5 minutes
C) 10 minutes
D) 1 minute

195. A patient with DVT should avoid
A) Walking
B) Massaging the affected leg
C) Elevation of leg
D) Anticoagulants

196. The cardinal signs of inflammation are
A) Pain, swelling, fever
B) Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function
C) Pus, swelling
D) Itching and rash

197. A fracture with bone protruding through skin is called
A) Greenstick
B) Compound fracture
C) Simple fracture
D) Comminuted fracture

198. RICE in management of sprain stands for
A) Rest, Ice, Compression, Exercise
B) Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
C) Rub, Ice, Cold, Elevation
D) Rest, Injection, Compression, Exercise

199. The normal WBC count is
A) 2000-4000
B) 4000-11000
C) 12000-20000
D) 20000-50000

200. Blood group O is called
A) Universal recipient
B) Universal donor
C) Rare group
D) Bombay group