PerfectGhana

  • SEE: A Male Nurse Helps A Woman To Deliver By To Road Side

    SEE: A Male Nurse Helps A Woman To Deliver By To Road Side

    A male nurse by the name of Kendrick who is currently working at Amartey CHIP’S in Kwahu District doing delivery on his way to his outreach area. Kendrick is a product of Community Health Nurses Training School – Akim Oda. SEE: A Male Nurse Helps A Woman To Deliver By To Road Side

    This incidence took place when the nurse was on his way to an outreach but, upon seeing the woman in labour, he decided to help the lady instead of taking her to one of the nearby medical facilities because there was no other way to get there. There were also no other nearby medical facilities.

    Master Kendrick is a graduate of the Community Health Nurses Training School – Akim Oda. He is currently employed at Amartey CHIP’S in the Kwahu District. With his extensive expertise, he realised that the woman could lose her life as a result, taking into consideration the lengthy travel that lay in front of her to the closest CHIPS complex.

    SEE: A Male Nurse Helps A Woman To Deliver By To Road Side
    SEE: A Male Nurse Helps A Woman To Deliver By To Road Side

    Because of his extraordinary assistance to a labouring mother and her successful delivery, Master Kendrick, who was off duty at the time, has become the subject of much discussion on social media. SEE: A Male Nurse Helps A Woman To Deliver By To Road Side

     

    At the point where he realised that the woman was in dying need of aid, he was at the point of death. He realised that there was no hospital nearby or closer, and that the woman would have to walk for almost two hours before they could reach the next CHIP complex. SEE: A Male Nurse Helps A Woman To Deliver By To Road Side

    The woman was accompanied by some other ladies on her journey to the nearest medical institution, but these ladies lacked the knowledge and experience necessary to save the woman’s life as well as the life of her infant until Master Kendrick decided to step in and provide his assistance.

     

    As a result of the fact that following the delivery he also made an arrangement for them to proceed to the nearby CHIP complex, PerfectGhana is able to affirm that both the mother and the baby are in good health. SEE: A Male Nurse Helps A Woman To Deliver By To Road Side

    Payment of Salaries and Wages to Public Sector Employees 2023-CHECK DATES

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  • MTN Withdrawn Plans For New MoMo Transactions Charges-CHECK OUT

    MTN Withdrawn Plans For New MoMo Transactions Charges-CHECK OUT

    MTN has withdrawn it plans of increasing the costs associated with withdrawing money from Mobile Money. In a recent broadcast, the international telecommunications giant known as MTN revealed that effective on July 1st, the fees associated with withdrawing mobile money will increase for every MOMO transaction you make.

    The following message was sent to customers of MTN MobileMoney Limited via an SMS circular from the company: “Y’ello Valued Customer, kindly note that effective July 1, 2023, Cash out transactions below Ghc2,000 will attract a fee of 1%. Cash-out transactions from Ghc2,000 and above will attract a flat fee of Ghc 20. This will be charged to your wallet. Do not pay any other fee to any MoMo agent. Just Momo it”.

    The implementation was due to begin on July 1st but on 27th June, the telecommunications giant sent good to all its valued MTN mobile money customers. MTN Withdrawn Plans For New MoMo Transactions Charges-CHECK OUT

    Y’ello Valued Customer, the planned review of the cash out fee for MoMo has been withdrawn. The current cash out fee of 1%, capped at GHS10 still remains and will be charged to your wallet. Do not pay any other fees. We apologise for any inconvenience this may have caused. Just Momo it.

    MTN Withdrawn Plans For New MoMo Transactions Charges-CHECK OUT
    MTN Withdrawn Plans For New MoMo Transactions Charges-CHECK OUT

    Currently, the maximum fee that may be charged for cashing out is GHS10, and the maximum cost that can be charged for cashing out quantities that are greater than GHS1,000 still remains at 1% of any sum that is up to GHS1,000. MTN Withdrawn Plans For New MoMo Transactions Charges-CHECK OUT

    On the other hand, in compliance with the updated circular, the maximum fee has been raised from GHS10 to GHS20, and the maximum amount that is now subject to the 1% tax has been increased to GHS2,000. MTN Withdrawn Plans For New MoMo Transactions Charges-CHECK OUT

    In addition, this suggests that commencing on July 1, 2023, each cash-out transaction involving a sum ranging from GHS1,000 to GHS2,000 will be subject to a fee that is greater than GHS10. MTN Withdrawn Plans For New MoMo Transactions Charges-CHECK OUT

    This is a direct consequence of the difficult economic conditions that have been experienced in recent times, when individuals have been moaning about skyrocketing inflation, increased prices of items and services, job losses, and low wages. MTN Withdrawn Plans For New MoMo Transactions Charges-CHECK OUT

    A vexatious electronic transfer levy (e-levy) of 1% is applied on the bulk of digital financial transfers made by Ghanaians. This has been a hardship for the people of Ghana to bear. MTN Withdrawn Plans For New MoMo Transactions Charges-CHECK OUT

    MTN has not yet offered a reason for the rise in cash-out transaction costs that have been applied at this time, and they have not done so as of yet either. MTN Withdrawn Plans For New MoMo Transactions Charges-CHECK OUT

     

    “Should I Enter Your DM, Who’s Ready For Me?”-Beautiful Lady Causes Commotion Online With Her New Photos [WATCH]

    Should I enter your DM, who’s ready for me to come in? Stunning Young Woman Is Making Headlines All Over the Internet With Her Latest Photos. After posting the images, the girl featured in this article has sparked a significant amount of discussion on Instagram.

    “Should I Enter Your DM, Who’s Ready For Me?”-Beautiful Lady Causes Commotion Online With Her New Photos [WATCH]
    “Should I Enter Your DM, Who’s Ready For Me?”-Beautiful Lady Causes Commotion Online With Her New Photos [WATCH]
    BREAKING: Mark Zuckerberg Announces New WhatsApp Features Today-Check Now

    A lot of multi million social media companies such as Meta fear that changes to the law to promote online safety could compromise the privacy of users’ messages. The Most Sorted WhatsApp Feature Has Been Announced By Mark Zuckerberg, According To Breaking News

    The government wants to strengthen protections online, particularly for minors. The move appears to place Meta in direct conflict with the government. This new whatsapp feature will soon make it possible for all WhatsApp users to…Read More

    BREAKING: Mark Zuckerberg Announces New WhatsApp Features Today-Check Now

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  • NMC 2025 General Paper Final Mock Exams

    NMC 2025 General Paper Final Mock Exams

    NMC GENERAL PAPER MOCK EXAMINATION
    CANDIDATE’S NAME……………………………………………… DATE……………………
    TIME ALLOWED: 1 HOUR 25 MINUTES.
    INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ALL QUESTION BY SELECTING THE CORRECT RESPONSE

    NMC General Paper 1st Mock Exams
    NMC General Paper 1st Mock Exams

    NMC General Paper 1st Mock Exams

    WARD ETHICS
    1. The nurse caring for a client on the pediatric unit administers adult-strength Digitalis to the 3-pound infant. As a result of her actions, the baby suffers permanent heart and brain damage. The nurse can be charged with:
    A. Negligence
    B. Tort
    C. Assault
    D. Malpractice

    2. The nurse notes the patient care assistant looking through the personal items of the client with cancer. Which action should be taken by the registered nurse?
    A. Notify the police department as a robbery
    B. Report this behavior to the charge nurse
    C. Monitor the situation and note whether any items are missing
    D. Ignore the situation until items are reported missing

    3. The nurse witnesses the nursing assistant hitting the client in the long-term care facility. The nursing assistant can be charged with:
    A. Negligence
    B. Tort
    C. Assault
    D. Malpractice

    4. Which information should be reported to the state Board of Nursing?
    A. The facility fails to provide literature in both Spanish and English.
    B. The narcotic count has been incorrect on the unit for the past 3 days.
    C. The client fails to receive an itemized account of his bills and services received during his hospital stay.
    D. The nursing assistant assigned to the client with hepatitis fails to feed the client and give the bath.

    5. Oral defamation of a person by speaking unprivileged or false words by which his or her reputation is damaged is referred to as:
    A. Abuse
    B. Libel
    C. Slander
    D. Tort

    6. The Patient’s Bill of Rights affects nursing care delivery by requiring which of the following?
    A. The right to have someone other than the client make decisions about health care
    B. The right to the least-restrictive care available for mental health conditions
    C. The right to the lowest-cost care available for medical conditions
    D. The right to refuse treatment; the right to make medical decisions; the right to confidentiality.

    7. To be effective in meeting various ethnic needs, the nurse should
    A. Act as if he or she is comfortable with the client’s behavior
    B. Avoid asking questions about the client’s cultural background.
    C. Be aware of clients’ cultural differences
    D. Treat all clients alike

    8. Which situation is an example of an unintentional tort?
    A. Administering a medication that causes client harm
    B. Documenting in the chart that the client is incompetent
    C. Forcibly restraining the client for a procedure
    D. Telling another nurse that the client is gay

    9. The nurse is obligated to follow a physician’s order unless:
    A. The order is a verbal order
    B. The order is illegible
    C. The order has not been transcribed
    D. The order is an error, violates hospital policy, or would be detrimental to the client.

    10. A patient has been admitted to a sixty-bedroom ward. What right may be breached due to this setting?
    A. Right to examine and question his bill
    B. Right to information regarding diagnosis, treatment and prognosis.
    C. Right to privacy and confidentiality
    D. Right to refuse treatment

    11. The fundamental responsibility of the nurse according to the international council of Nurses code for Ethics are the following except …………
    A. Prevention of illness
    B. Promotion of illness
    C. Renewal of health
    D. Restoration of health

    12. Madam Mary Is 30 weeks pregnant and believes that someone want to take her baby from her womb. Which of the following Individuals would you Involve when counseling her
    I- Hospital Chaplain
    II. Husband of client
    III. Imam
    IV. Ward in charge
    A. I, II, and IV
    B. I, III and IV
    C. I, II and III ,
    D. II, III and IV

    13. Nurses who make FALSE statements about their clients or co-workers through writing can be sued for
    A. Battery
    B. Libel
    C. Slander
    D. Tort

    14. Which of the following are the rights of a patient
    I. consent or decline to a treatment
    II. comply with prescribed treatment
    III. personal safety and security
    IV. second medical opinion
    A. I, II and IV
    B. I, II and III
    C. I, III and IV
    D. II, III and IV

    15. You are on night duty and a patient who has been on the ward for 3 days suddenly becomes aggressive, breaks a louvre blade and stabs himself with it. The patient bleeds to death. What is the name given to the report that you will write?
    A. Daily report
    B. Incident report
    C. Twenty – four hour report
    D. Nurses’ report

    NMC General Paper 1st Mock Exams

    PSYCHIATRY
    16. A depressive patient is more likely to commit suicide when:
    A. He is confused
    B. He is very depressed
    C. The depression is getting worse.
    D. The depression is lifting

    17. Mania-a-potu is a mental state which occurs in
    A. Alcoholic syndrome
    B. Syphillitic psychosis
    C. Manic-depressive psychosis
    D. Systematized delusional state.

    18. A means of obtaining sexual gratification by looking at sexual organs or others engaged in the sexual activity is:
    A. Frotteurism
    B. Exhibitionism
    C. Voyeurism
    D. Fetishism

    19. Pseudo-dementia is also known as:
    A. General paralysis of insane (G.P.I)
    B. Gansers syndrome
    C. Huntingtons chorea
    D. Capgras syndrome

    20. Which of the following types of schizophrenia is the personality much more preserved?
    A. Paranoid schizophrenia
    B. Catatonic schizophrenia
    C. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
    D. Simple schizophrenia

    21. Which of the following is not a type of psychopath?
    A. Aggressive psychopath
    B. Depressive psychopath
    C. Creative Psychopath
    D. Inadequate psychopath

    22. When an idea exists simultaneously with a counter idea. It is called:
    A. Negativism
    B. Conative disorder
    C. Astheria
    D. Ambivalence

    23. Ophelia sees a piece of rag on her writing table and screams” its a snake, please help me. What symptom is this:
    A. Phobia
    B. Delusion
    C. Hallucination
    D. Illusion

    24. Regina is well educated and beautiful but she cries like a baby when she is frustrated. Which mental mechanism describes the behaviour.
    A. Reppresion
    B. Reaction formation
    C. Regression
    D. Displacement

    25. All the following are chromosomal abnormalities EXCEPT
    A. Down’s syndrome
    B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
    C. Korsakoff’s syndrome
    D. Turner’s syndrome

    26. The following are disorders of mood EXCEPT
    A. Apathy
    B. Catalepsy
    C. Elation
    D. Incongruity of affect

    27. Which of the following is an anxiety disorder
    A. Delirium tremens
    B. Depression
    C. Obsessive compulsive disorder
    D. Schizophrenia

    28. Which of the following is not associated with turners syndrome
    A. Female gender identity
    B. Infertility
    C. Short stature
    D. XXY chromosome pattern

    29. A child who was abused has no recollection of events but has difficulty making friends.
    a. Displacement
    b. Repression
    c. Sublimation
    d. suppression

    30. A 21 year old student had an abortion. 2 years later she visits the hospital and midwife asked her if she had ever been pregnant and she replied “NO”
    A. Displacement
    B. Repression
    C. Sublimation
    D. Suppression

    PUBLIC HEALTH
    31. At what age should the child receive the first dose of the measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine?
    A. 12 months
    B. 2 years
    C. 22 months
    D. 4 years

    32. The regional cold stores can store vaccines up to
    A. 2 months
    B. 3 Months
    C. 4 months
    D. 6 months

    33. This is a label containing a heat-sensitive material which is place on a vaccine vial to register cumulative heat exposure over time
    A. Freeze watch
    B. Thermometer
    C. Vaccine Vial Monitor
    D. Vaccine Bottle Monitor

    34. Why is it important to give a test dose of Anti-Tetanus and Anti-Snake Sera before the full dose?
    A. To detect minor reactions
    B. To detect unpleasant and dangerous reactions
    C. To hypnotize the client
    D. Because they are Live-attenuated vaccines

    35. It is an ordinary visit made to homes in the catchment area
    A. Special visit
    B. Selective visit
    C. Nomal visit
    D. Routine visit

    36. The Home Visit Bag is divided into how many compartments?
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 3
    D. 5

    37. Old newspaper, soap, towel, apron, pens etc are contents of which compartment of the home visit bag?
    A. The middle pocket
    B. The first outer pocket
    C. The inner pocket
    D. The first inner pocket

    38. Primary Health Care aimed at achieving the following objectives by the year 2000
    I. To prevent or treat conditions which cause unnecessary ill health, disabilities and death in the community.
    II. To increase community participation as much as possible in the health care delivery.
    III. To construct hospitals
    IV. To distribute health staff and equipment
    A. I & II only
    B. III & IV only
    C. I, II & IV
    D. I, II, III & IV

    39. Traditional Birth Attendant (TBA) belongs to which level of Primary Health Care System?
    A. level A
    B. Level B
    C. Level C
    D. Level D

    40. CHPS stands for
    A. Community-Based Health Planning Services
    B. Community-Based Health Planning and Service
    C. Community-Based Health Planning and Services
    D. Community-Base Health Planning and Services

    41. The CHPS concept helps to;
    Improve the health of the people in the communities.
    Bring cost-effective and cost-saving in terms of prevention of diseases.
    Improve the moral of health workers and enhances their work potential.
    Develop the capacity of health workers at the community level.
    A. I & II only
    B. II, III & IV only
    C. I, II, III only
    D. I, II, III & IV

    42. What is the right dose of BCG vaccine in vaccine administration?
    A. 0.05ml
    B. 0.5ml
    C. 0.1ml
    D. 0.1.5ml

    43. Which type of immunity requires introducing antibodies into the human body to elicit an immune response?
    a. Artificially acquired active immunity
    b. Artificially acquired passive immunity
    c. Naturally acquired active immunity
    d. Naturally acquired passive immunity

    44. BCG is one of the childhood immunizations which is injected ………… into the …………… upper arm of the deltoid muscles.
    A. Intradermally , left
    B. Intradermally, right
    C. Subcutaneously, left
    D. Subcutaneously, right

    45. Which of the following is the best way of determining the nutritional status of a child?
    a. Examining the colour of the hair
    b. Examining the colour of the eyes
    c. Measuring of BP of the child
    d. Measuring of mid-upper arm circumference

    NMC General Paper 1st Mock Exams

    OBSTERTIC NURSING
    46. The size of the female breast is determined by the following factors EXCEPT–
    A. Age
    B. Hereditary
    C. Amount of fatty tissue present in the breast
    D. Height

    47. The cessation of ovulation during pregnancy is as a result of………………………..
    A. High levels of LH
    B. High levels of Relaxin
    C. High levels of Oestrogen and progesterone
    D. High levels of Oestrogen

    48. A woman can sustain various degrees of tears during the second stage of labour. The severest form is the fourth degree tear. This type of tear includes the following structure as
    A. Skin ,fourchette and superficial pelvic floor muscle
    B. Skin fourchette, mucous membrane and superficial pelvic floor muscle
    C. Mucous membrane superficial pelvic floor muscle deep floor muscle external anal sphincter
    D. Superficial and deep floor muscle of the pelvic floor, external and internal anal sphincter.

    49. In active management of the third stage of labour, the midwife is to preload…… of syntocinonat the end of first stage.
    A. 10mls
    B. 10 units
    C. 10 mg
    D. 10mcg

    50. Abortion is the expulsion of the product of conception before the…..week of gestation.
    A. 23rd
    B. 24th
    C. 27th
    D. 28th

    51. Majority of abortions occur in the……………
    A. First trimester
    B. Second trimester
    C. Mid trimester
    D. Late trimester

    52. Approximately ……..% of all confirmed pregnancies results in abortion.
    A. 10%
    B. 15%
    C. 20%
    D. 25%

    53. The following are fetal causes of abortion EXCEPT
    A. Chromosomal abnormality
    B. Faulty placenta formation
    C. Implantation of the blastocyst
    D. Malformation of the trophoblast

    54. Spontaneous abortion is defined as the ……..loss of product of conception.
    A. Biological loss
    B. Chemical loss
    C. Involuntary loss
    D. Voluntary loss

    55. The viability of the foetus begins from………weeks of gestation.
    A. 23rd
    B. 24th
    C. 27th
    D. 28th

    56. The following are complications of abortion EXCEPT….
    A. Acute renal failure
    B. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
    C. Peritonitis
    D. Endometriosis

    57. Prolactin which stimulates the breast to secrete milk is produced by which of the following
    a. Adrenal glands
    b. Breasts
    c. Ovary
    d. Pituitary gland

    58. A ten-week pregnant woman complains of heart burns. To release this discomfort, the nurse would advise them to do the following EXCEPT
    A. Avoid bending over whilst doing house hold chores
    B. Lie on the left side of the body
    C. Sleep with more pillows than usual
    D. Takes small meals at a time

    59. Which hormone controls the first part of the menstrual cycle?
    a. Follicle stimulating hormone
    b. Luteinising hormone
    c. Oestrongen
    d. Progesterone

    60. Which of the following terms explains beleeding inbetween periods?
    A. Dysmenorrhoea
    B. Menorrhoea
    C. Metrorrhagia
    D. Ollgomenorrhoea

    61. Which of these injuries may occur as result of difficult labour?
    A. Erbi’s palsy
    B. Facial paralysis
    C. Fracture of femur
    D. Torticollis
    a. I, II and III
    b. I, II and IV
    c. I, III and IV
    d. I, II, III and IV

    62. Which of these conditions can be precipitated by pregnancy?
    i. Diabetes
    ii. Eclampsia
    iii. Pre-eclampsia
    iv. Jaundice
    a. I and II
    b. I, II and III
    c. I, III and IV
    d. II, III and IV

    63. The strongest pelvic ligament that binds the pelvic girdle could be found between the
    A. Lumber and the sacrum
    B. Public bones
    C. Sacrum and coccyx
    D. Sacrum and ilium

    64. Which of the following is the milk secretory part of the breast?
    A. Alveoli
    B. Ampulla
    C. Lactiferous tubles
    D. Lactiferous duct

    65. The main function of the pilcae in the fallopian tube is to
    A. Facilitate fast movement of the sperm
    B. Facilitate movement of eva
    C. Gives the zygote nourishment until the placenta develops
    D. Slows down passage of the fertilised ovum and facilitating it to develop

    NMC General Paper 1st Mock Exams

    PAEDIATRICS
    66. The parents of a 3 year old child with tetralogy of fallot tell the nurse that their child frequently squats during play. Based on an understanding of tetralogy of fallot, the nurse recognizes that this is………………….
    A. A compensatory mechanism
    B. A disinterest in engaging in play
    C. A sign of constipation
    D. Normal for the child developmental age.

    67. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care for a child diagnosed with secondary hypertension?
    A. Managing cholesterol level
    B. Treatment of underlying condition
    C. Use of diuretics
    D. Weight control

    68. After a tonsillectomy, a nurse reviews the physician’s postoperative prescriptions. Which of the following prescriptions does the nurse question?
    A. Give clear, cool liquids when awake and alert
    B. Give no milk
    C. Monitor for bleeding.
    D. Suction every two hours

    69. A 17 year old client is about to be discharged home with her new born baby, and the nurse provides information to the client about home safety for children. Which statement by the client would alert the nurse that further teaching is required regarding home safety?
    A. I keep all my pots and pans in my lower cabinets
    B. I will not use the microwave oven to heat my baby’s formula
    C. I have locks on all my cabinets that contain my cleaning supplies
    D. I have a car seat that I will put in the front seat to keep my baby safe

    70. To maintain a child’s developmental skills while hospitalized, a nurse would encourage a 1 year old child who was born 2 months earlier than the estimated date of delivery to:
    A. Build a tower of three blocks
    B. Indicate wants by pointing or grunting
    C. Sit independently
    D. Walk independently

    71. When obtaining a history from parents of a five months old child suspected of having intussusception, which assessment area would be most important for the nurse to address?
    A. Dietary intake during the past 24hours
    B. Known allergies
    C. Pattern of abdominal pain
    D. Usual pattern of bowel movements

    72. Which reflex helps the neonate to turn his head to the side when the check is touched along the side of the mouth?
    a. Grasp reflex
    b. Moro reflex
    c. Rooting reflex
    d. Sucking reflex

    73. Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother is……………………..
    a. Rh negative and foetus is rhesus positive
    b. Rh negative and foetus rhesus negative
    c. Blood group O and foetus is blood group A
    d. Blood group A and foetus is blood group O

    74. A bulging anterior frontanelle is an indication of
    a. Dehydration
    b. Depression
    c. Infection
    d. Rehydration

    75. Which of the following disease condition is common in vitamin B1 deficiency?
    a. Beriberi
    b. Mump
    c. Pellagra
    d. Scurvy

    76. The presence of parents during painful procedures on their toddlers should be
    A. Based on individual assessment of the parents
    B. Based on the type of procedure to be performed
    C. Discouraged for the benefit of the parents and the child
    D. Encouraged and permitted if the child desires their presence

    77. At what age in the developmental stages is an infant experted to have first teeth
    A. 3 – 4 months
    B. 5 – 9 months
    C. 10 – 12months
    D. 13-18 months

    78. A condition In which there is an opening on the dorsal surface of the penis is known as
    A. Congenital Hydronephrosis
    B. Epispadias
    C. Hypospadias
    D. Teratoma

    79. In caring for an infant with cleft lip and cleft palate before surgery which of the following will you consider as the most important
    A. Ensuring adequate nutrition
    B. Promoting family coping
    C. Reducing family anxiety
    D. Relieving pain

    80. An infant has been transferred from the ICU to the pediatric unit after undergoing surgery to correct a heart defect. Which task can the nurse delegate to the licensed practical nurse?
    A. Administering oral medications.
    B. Obtaining vital signs.
    C. Morning hygiene.
    D. All of the above

     

    MEDICINE AND SURGERY
    81. What type of surgery is carried out in a patient with compartment syndrome
    a. Compartiotomy
    b. Mayotomy
    c. Fasciotomy
    d. Osteotomy

    82. For patients with skeletal traction, the main aim of caring for the wound at the skin site is to prevent?
    A. Mal union
    B. Non union
    C. Osteoporosis
    D. Osteomyelitis

    83. Pick the odd one out
    A. Nylon
    B. Chromic cutgut
    C. Cotton
    D. Linen

    84. The following are complications of colostomy
    A. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
    B. Impaired bowel movement
    C. Faecal impaction
    D. All the above

    85. Prostatectomy can be performed by the following approaches except
    A. transurethral
    B. perineal
    C. intrathecal
    D. retropubic

    86. Intramedularly nailing is used in the treatment of
    A. fracture of the shaft of the femur
    B. fracture of the neck of the femur
    C. slipped epiphysis

    87. Male infertility may be caused by all of the following except
    A. perineal hypospadias
    B. nephrostomy
    C. severe anaemia
    D. prostatectomy

    88. Which of the following is not a method of skin grafting?
    A. Thiersch grafting
    B. Thick split thickness
    C. Pedicle grafting
    D. Peterson’s graft

    89. Myringotomy tubes inserted into the eardrum:
    A. Provide a means of instilling into the middle ear
    B. Prevent secretions from drainage through the Eustachian tube to the pharyngeal area
    C. Equalize the pressure between the middle ear And the external ear
    D. Prevent the eutachian tube from opening during swallowing

    90. Obstruction of the urinary tract or failure of urinary peristalsis may result in the condition known as :
    A. Pyelonephrosis
    B. Pyelonephritis
    C. Hydronephrosis
    D. Hypernehroma

    91. Mydriatics are used in the treatment of the eye because they:
    A. Dilate the pupil
    B. Constrict the pupil
    C. Are anaesthetic
    D. Reduce infection

    92. A head trauma producing a brief loss of consciousness immediately followed by confusion or memory loss is termed
    A. Cerebral laceration
    B. Concussion
    C. Contusion
    D. Contracoup

    93. When assessing a client with varicose veins, the nurse should expect the client to experience
    A. A positive homans’ sign
    B. Cramping sensations in the calf muscle
    C. Continuous oedema of the affected extremity
    D. Coolness and pallor of the affected extremity

    94. The most serious complication of an open fracture is
    A. Deformity
    B. Infection
    C. Muscle atrophy
    D. Nerve damage

    95. Prolonged bed rest after surgery may cause formation of dep vendus thrombosis resulting in
    A. Cerebral embolism
    B. Coronary acclusion
    C. Dry gangrene of a limb
    D. Pulmonary embolism

    96. The ideal position to place a patient soon after heamorrhoidectomy Is
    A. lateral
    B. prone
    C. seml-fowlers
    D. supine

    97. Deep vein thrombosis usually originate from the veins In the
    A- gastro-intestinal tract
    B. lower extremities
    C- pulmonary circulation
    D. upper extremities

    98. A Mid-year old man complained of chest pain and chest x-ray was done for him. The physician noticed fluid accumulation in the pleural space. This is described as;
    A.empyema
    B. pleural abscess
    C. pleural effusion
    D. pulmonary effusion

    99. All these viral Infections are transmitted through blood EXCEPT
    A. Hepatitis A
    B. Hepatitis B
    C. Hepatitis C
    D. Hepatitis D

    100. The nurse is ready to transfer a patient from the ward into the operating room. Which action of the nurse would be most appropriate?
    a. Administer all the daily medication
    b. Ensure that the client has voided
    c. Practice post operative breathing exercise
    d. Verify that the client has not eaten the last 24hours

    NMC General Paper 1st Mock Exams Answers

    WARD ETHICS
    1. D. Malpractice

    2. B. Report this behavior to the charge nurse

    3. C. Assault

    4. B. The narcotic count has been incorrect on the unit for the past 3 days.

    5. C. Slander

    6. D. The right to refuse treatment; the right to make medical decisions; the right to confidentiality.

    7. C. Be aware of clients’ cultural differences

    8. A. Administering a medication that causes client harm

    9. D. The order is an error, violates hospital policy, or would be detrimental to the client.

    10. C. Right to privacy and confidentiality

    11. B. Promotion of illness

    12.  A. I, II, and IV

    13. B. Libel

    14. C. I, III and IV

    15. B. Incident report

    PSYCHIATRY
    16. D. The depression is lifting

    17. A. Alcoholic syndrome

    18.  C. Voyeurism

    19. B. Gansers syndrome

    20. A. Paranoid schizophrenia

    21. B. Depressive psychopath

    22. D. Ambivalence

    23. D. Illusion

    24. C. Regression

    25. C. Korsakoff’s syndrome

    26. B. Catalepsy

    27.C. Obsessive compulsive disorder

    28.D. XXY chromosome pattern

    29. B. Repression

    30. D. Suppression

    PUBLIC HEALTH
    31. A. 12 months

    32. B. 3 Months

    33. B. Thermometer

    34. B. To detect unpleasant and dangerous reactions

    35. D. Routine visit

    36. C. 3

    37. B. The first outer pocket

    38. A. I & II only

    39. A. level A

    40. C. Community-Based Health Planning and Services

    41. D. I, II, III & IV

    42. A. 0.05ml

    43. D. Artificially acquired passive immunity

    44. B. Intradermally, right

    45. D. Measuring of mid-upper arm circumference

    OBSTERTIC NURSING
    46. D. Height

    47. A. High levels of LH

    48. D. Superficial and deep floor muscle of the pelvic floor, external and internal anal sphincter.

    49. B. 10 units

    50. D. 28th

    51. A. First trimester

    52. B. 15%

    53. C. Implantation of the blastocyst

    54. C. Involuntary loss

    55. D. 28th

    56. A. Acute renal failure

    57. D. Pituitary gland

    58. B. Lie on the left side of the body

    59. C. Oestrongen

    60. C. Metrorrhagia

    61. D. I, II, III and IV

    62. B. I, II and III

    63. D. Sacrum and ilium

    64. A. Alveoli

    65. D. Slows down passage of the fertilised ovum and facilitating it to develop

    PAEDIATRICS
    66. A. A compensatory mechanism

    67. B. Treatment of underlying condition

    68. D. Suction every two hours

    69. D. I have a car seat that I will put in the front seat to keep my baby safe

    70. B. Indicate wants by pointing or grunting

    71. D. Usual pattern of bowel movements

    72. C. Rooting reflex

    73. A. Rh negative and foetus is rhesus positive

    74. A. Dehydration

    75. A. Beriberi

    76. D. Encouraged and permitted if the child desires their presence

    77. B. 5 – 9 months

    78. B. Epispadias

    79. C. Reducing family anxiety

    80. D. All of the above

    MEDICINE AND SURGERY
    81. C. Fasciotomy

    82. D. Osteomyelitis

    83. B. Chromic cutgut

    84. D. All the above

    85. C. intrathecal

    86. A. fracture of the shaft of the femur

    87. C. severe anaemia

    88. D. Peterson’s graft

    89. C. Equalize the pressure between the middle ear And the external ear

    90. C. Hydronephrosis

    91. A. Dilate the pupil

    92. B. Concussion

    93. A. A positive homans’ sign

    94. B. Infection

    95. D. Pulmonary embolism

    96. A. lateral

    97. B. lower extremities

    98. C. pleural effusion

    99. A. Hepatitis A

    100. B. Ensure that the client has voided

     

    Online Registration of NMC 2023 Candidates

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