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NMC General Paper 1st Mock Exams

NMC General Paper Mock

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NMC General Paper 1st Mock Exams

NMC GENERAL PAPER MOCK EXAMINATION
CANDIDATE’S NAME……………………………………………… DATE……………………
TIME ALLOWED: 1 HOUR 25 MINUTES.
INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ALL QUESTION BY SELECTING THE CORRECT RESPONSE

NMC General Paper 1st Mock Exams

WARD ETHICS
1. The nurse caring for a client on the pediatric unit administers adult-strength Digitalis to the 3-pound infant. As a result of her actions, the baby suffers permanent heart and brain damage. The nurse can be charged with:
A. Negligence
B. Tort
C. Assault
D. Malpractice

2. The nurse notes the patient care assistant looking through the personal items of the client with cancer. Which action should be taken by the registered nurse?
A. Notify the police department as a robbery
B. Report this behavior to the charge nurse
C. Monitor the situation and note whether any items are missing
D. Ignore the situation until items are reported missing

3. The nurse witnesses the nursing assistant hitting the client in the long-term care facility. The nursing assistant can be charged with:
A. Negligence
B. Tort
C. Assault
D. Malpractice

4. Which information should be reported to the state Board of Nursing?
A. The facility fails to provide literature in both Spanish and English.
B. The narcotic count has been incorrect on the unit for the past 3 days.
C. The client fails to receive an itemized account of his bills and services received during his hospital stay.
D. The nursing assistant assigned to the client with hepatitis fails to feed the client and give the bath.

5. Oral defamation of a person by speaking unprivileged or false words by which his or her reputation is damaged is referred to as:
A. Abuse
B. Libel
C. Slander
D. Tort

6. The Patient’s Bill of Rights affects nursing care delivery by requiring which of the following?
A. The right to have someone other than the client make decisions about health care
B. The right to the least-restrictive care available for mental health conditions
C. The right to the lowest-cost care available for medical conditions
D. The right to refuse treatment; the right to make medical decisions; the right to confidentiality.

7. To be effective in meeting various ethnic needs, the nurse should
A. Act as if he or she is comfortable with the client’s behavior
B. Avoid asking questions about the client’s cultural background.
C. Be aware of clients’ cultural differences
D. Treat all clients alike

8. Which situation is an example of an unintentional tort?
A. Administering a medication that causes client harm
B. Documenting in the chart that the client is incompetent
C. Forcibly restraining the client for a procedure
D. Telling another nurse that the client is gay

9. The nurse is obligated to follow a physician’s order unless:
A. The order is a verbal order
B. The order is illegible
C. The order has not been transcribed
D. The order is an error, violates hospital policy, or would be detrimental to the client.

10. A patient has been admitted to a sixty-bedroom ward. What right may be breached due to this setting?
A. Right to examine and question his bill
B. Right to information regarding diagnosis, treatment and prognosis.
C. Right to privacy and confidentiality
D. Right to refuse treatment

11. The fundamental responsibility of the nurse according to the international council of Nurses code for Ethics are the following except …………
A. Prevention of illness
B. Promotion of illness
C. Renewal of health
D. Restoration of health

12. Madam Mary Is 30 weeks pregnant and believes that someone want to take her baby from her womb. Which of the following Individuals would you Involve when counseling her
I- Hospital Chaplain
II. Husband of client
III. Imam
IV. Ward in charge
A. I, II, and IV
B. I, III and IV
C. I, II and III ,
D. II, III and IV

13. Nurses who make FALSE statements about their clients or co-workers through writing can be sued for
A. Battery
B. Libel
C. Slander
D. Tort

14. Which of the following are the rights of a patient
I. consent or decline to a treatment
II. comply with prescribed treatment
III. personal safety and security
IV. second medical opinion
A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, III and IV
D. II, III and IV

15. You are on night duty and a patient who has been on the ward for 3 days suddenly becomes aggressive, breaks a louvre blade and stabs himself with it. The patient bleeds to death. What is the name given to the report that you will write?
A. Daily report
B. Incident report
C. Twenty – four hour report
D. Nurses’ report

NMC General Paper 1st Mock Exams

PSYCHIATRY
16. A depressive patient is more likely to commit suicide when:
A. He is confused
B. He is very depressed
C. The depression is getting worse.
D. The depression is lifting

17. Mania-a-potu is a mental state which occurs in
A. Alcoholic syndrome
B. Syphillitic psychosis
C. Manic-depressive psychosis
D. Systematized delusional state.

18. A means of obtaining sexual gratification by looking at sexual organs or others engaged in the sexual activity is:
A. Frotteurism
B. Exhibitionism
C. Voyeurism
D. Fetishism

19. Pseudo-dementia is also known as:
A. General paralysis of insane (G.P.I)
B. Gansers syndrome
C. Huntingtons chorea
D. Capgras syndrome

20. Which of the following types of schizophrenia is the personality much more preserved?
A. Paranoid schizophrenia
B. Catatonic schizophrenia
C. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
D. Simple schizophrenia

21. Which of the following is not a type of psychopath?
A. Aggressive psychopath
B. Depressive psychopath
C. Creative Psychopath
D. Inadequate psychopath

22. When an idea exists simultaneously with a counter idea. It is called:
A. Negativism
B. Conative disorder
C. Astheria
D. Ambivalence

23. Ophelia sees a piece of rag on her writing table and screams” its a snake, please help me. What symptom is this:
A. Phobia
B. Delusion
C. Hallucination
D. Illusion

24. Regina is well educated and beautiful but she cries like a baby when she is frustrated. Which mental mechanism describes the behaviour.
A. Reppresion
B. Reaction formation
C. Regression
D. Displacement

25. All the following are chromosomal abnormalities EXCEPT
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. Korsakoff’s syndrome
D. Turner’s syndrome

26. The following are disorders of mood EXCEPT
A. Apathy
B. Catalepsy
C. Elation
D. Incongruity of affect

27. Which of the following is an anxiety disorder
A. Delirium tremens
B. Depression
C. Obsessive compulsive disorder
D. Schizophrenia

28. Which of the following is not associated with turners syndrome
A. Female gender identity
B. Infertility
C. Short stature
D. XXY chromosome pattern

29. A child who was abused has no recollection of events but has difficulty making friends.
a. Displacement
b. Repression
c. Sublimation
d. suppression

30. A 21 year old student had an abortion. 2 years later she visits the hospital and midwife asked her if she had ever been pregnant and she replied “NO”
A. Displacement
B. Repression
C. Sublimation
D. Suppression

PUBLIC HEALTH
31. At what age should the child receive the first dose of the measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine?
A. 12 months
B. 2 years
C. 22 months
D. 4 years

32. The regional cold stores can store vaccines up to
A. 2 months
B. 3 Months
C. 4 months
D. 6 months

33. This is a label containing a heat-sensitive material which is place on a vaccine vial to register cumulative heat exposure over time
A. Freeze watch
B. Thermometer
C. Vaccine Vial Monitor
D. Vaccine Bottle Monitor

34. Why is it important to give a test dose of Anti-Tetanus and Anti-Snake Sera before the full dose?
A. To detect minor reactions
B. To detect unpleasant and dangerous reactions
C. To hypnotize the client
D. Because they are Live-attenuated vaccines

35. It is an ordinary visit made to homes in the catchment area
A. Special visit
B. Selective visit
C. Nomal visit
D. Routine visit

36. The Home Visit Bag is divided into how many compartments?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

37. Old newspaper, soap, towel, apron, pens etc are contents of which compartment of the home visit bag?
A. The middle pocket
B. The first outer pocket
C. The inner pocket
D. The first inner pocket

38. Primary Health Care aimed at achieving the following objectives by the year 2000
I. To prevent or treat conditions which cause unnecessary ill health, disabilities and death in the community.
II. To increase community participation as much as possible in the health care delivery.
III. To construct hospitals
IV. To distribute health staff and equipment
A. I & II only
B. III & IV only
C. I, II & IV
D. I, II, III & IV

39. Traditional Birth Attendant (TBA) belongs to which level of Primary Health Care System?
A. level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D

40. CHPS stands for
A. Community-Based Health Planning Services
B. Community-Based Health Planning and Service
C. Community-Based Health Planning and Services
D. Community-Base Health Planning and Services

41. The CHPS concept helps to;
Improve the health of the people in the communities.
Bring cost-effective and cost-saving in terms of prevention of diseases.
Improve the moral of health workers and enhances their work potential.
Develop the capacity of health workers at the community level.
A. I & II only
B. II, III & IV only
C. I, II, III only
D. I, II, III & IV

42. What is the right dose of BCG vaccine in vaccine administration?
A. 0.05ml
B. 0.5ml
C. 0.1ml
D. 0.1.5ml

43. Which type of immunity requires introducing antibodies into the human body to elicit an immune response?
a. Artificially acquired active immunity
b. Artificially acquired passive immunity
c. Naturally acquired active immunity
d. Naturally acquired passive immunity

44. BCG is one of the childhood immunizations which is injected ………… into the …………… upper arm of the deltoid muscles.
A. Intradermally , left
B. Intradermally, right
C. Subcutaneously, left
D. Subcutaneously, right

45. Which of the following is the best way of determining the nutritional status of a child?
a. Examining the colour of the hair
b. Examining the colour of the eyes
c. Measuring of BP of the child
d. Measuring of mid-upper arm circumference

NMC General Paper 1st Mock Exams

OBSTERTIC NURSING
46. The size of the female breast is determined by the following factors EXCEPT–
A. Age
B. Hereditary
C. Amount of fatty tissue present in the breast
D. Height

47. The cessation of ovulation during pregnancy is as a result of………………………..
A. High levels of LH
B. High levels of Relaxin
C. High levels of Oestrogen and progesterone
D. High levels of Oestrogen

48. A woman can sustain various degrees of tears during the second stage of labour. The severest form is the fourth degree tear. This type of tear includes the following structure as
A. Skin ,fourchette and superficial pelvic floor muscle
B. Skin fourchette, mucous membrane and superficial pelvic floor muscle
C. Mucous membrane superficial pelvic floor muscle deep floor muscle external anal sphincter
D. Superficial and deep floor muscle of the pelvic floor, external and internal anal sphincter.

49. In active management of the third stage of labour, the midwife is to preload…… of syntocinonat the end of first stage.
A. 10mls
B. 10 units
C. 10 mg
D. 10mcg

50. Abortion is the expulsion of the product of conception before the…..week of gestation.
A. 23rd
B. 24th
C. 27th
D. 28th

51. Majority of abortions occur in the……………
A. First trimester
B. Second trimester
C. Mid trimester
D. Late trimester

52. Approximately ……..% of all confirmed pregnancies results in abortion.
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%

53. The following are fetal causes of abortion EXCEPT
A. Chromosomal abnormality
B. Faulty placenta formation
C. Implantation of the blastocyst
D. Malformation of the trophoblast

54. Spontaneous abortion is defined as the ……..loss of product of conception.
A. Biological loss
B. Chemical loss
C. Involuntary loss
D. Voluntary loss

55. The viability of the foetus begins from………weeks of gestation.
A. 23rd
B. 24th
C. 27th
D. 28th

56. The following are complications of abortion EXCEPT….
A. Acute renal failure
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
C. Peritonitis
D. Endometriosis

57. Prolactin which stimulates the breast to secrete milk is produced by which of the following
a. Adrenal glands
b. Breasts
c. Ovary
d. Pituitary gland

58. A ten-week pregnant woman complains of heart burns. To release this discomfort, the nurse would advise them to do the following EXCEPT
A. Avoid bending over whilst doing house hold chores
B. Lie on the left side of the body
C. Sleep with more pillows than usual
D. Takes small meals at a time

59. Which hormone controls the first part of the menstrual cycle?
a. Follicle stimulating hormone
b. Luteinising hormone
c. Oestrongen
d. Progesterone

60. Which of the following terms explains beleeding inbetween periods?
A. Dysmenorrhoea
B. Menorrhoea
C. Metrorrhagia
D. Ollgomenorrhoea

61. Which of these injuries may occur as result of difficult labour?
A. Erbi’s palsy
B. Facial paralysis
C. Fracture of femur
D. Torticollis
a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. I, III and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

62. Which of these conditions can be precipitated by pregnancy?
i. Diabetes
ii. Eclampsia
iii. Pre-eclampsia
iv. Jaundice
a. I and II
b. I, II and III
c. I, III and IV
d. II, III and IV

63. The strongest pelvic ligament that binds the pelvic girdle could be found between the
A. Lumber and the sacrum
B. Public bones
C. Sacrum and coccyx
D. Sacrum and ilium

64. Which of the following is the milk secretory part of the breast?
A. Alveoli
B. Ampulla
C. Lactiferous tubles
D. Lactiferous duct

65. The main function of the pilcae in the fallopian tube is to
A. Facilitate fast movement of the sperm
B. Facilitate movement of eva
C. Gives the zygote nourishment until the placenta develops
D. Slows down passage of the fertilised ovum and facilitating it to develop

NMC General Paper 1st Mock Exams

PAEDIATRICS
66. The parents of a 3 year old child with tetralogy of fallot tell the nurse that their child frequently squats during play. Based on an understanding of tetralogy of fallot, the nurse recognizes that this is………………….
A. A compensatory mechanism
B. A disinterest in engaging in play
C. A sign of constipation
D. Normal for the child developmental age.

67. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care for a child diagnosed with secondary hypertension?
A. Managing cholesterol level
B. Treatment of underlying condition
C. Use of diuretics
D. Weight control

68. After a tonsillectomy, a nurse reviews the physician’s postoperative prescriptions. Which of the following prescriptions does the nurse question?
A. Give clear, cool liquids when awake and alert
B. Give no milk
C. Monitor for bleeding.
D. Suction every two hours

69. A 17 year old client is about to be discharged home with her new born baby, and the nurse provides information to the client about home safety for children. Which statement by the client would alert the nurse that further teaching is required regarding home safety?
A. I keep all my pots and pans in my lower cabinets
B. I will not use the microwave oven to heat my baby’s formula
C. I have locks on all my cabinets that contain my cleaning supplies
D. I have a car seat that I will put in the front seat to keep my baby safe

70. To maintain a child’s developmental skills while hospitalized, a nurse would encourage a 1 year old child who was born 2 months earlier than the estimated date of delivery to:
A. Build a tower of three blocks
B. Indicate wants by pointing or grunting
C. Sit independently
D. Walk independently

71. When obtaining a history from parents of a five months old child suspected of having intussusception, which assessment area would be most important for the nurse to address?
A. Dietary intake during the past 24hours
B. Known allergies
C. Pattern of abdominal pain
D. Usual pattern of bowel movements

72. Which reflex helps the neonate to turn his head to the side when the check is touched along the side of the mouth?
a. Grasp reflex
b. Moro reflex
c. Rooting reflex
d. Sucking reflex

73. Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother is……………………..
a. Rh negative and foetus is rhesus positive
b. Rh negative and foetus rhesus negative
c. Blood group O and foetus is blood group A
d. Blood group A and foetus is blood group O

74. A bulging anterior frontanelle is an indication of
a. Dehydration
b. Depression
c. Infection
d. Rehydration

75. Which of the following disease condition is common in vitamin B1 deficiency?
a. Beriberi
b. Mump
c. Pellagra
d. Scurvy

76. The presence of parents during painful procedures on their toddlers should be
A. Based on individual assessment of the parents
B. Based on the type of procedure to be performed
C. Discouraged for the benefit of the parents and the child
D. Encouraged and permitted if the child desires their presence

77. At what age in the developmental stages is an infant experted to have first teeth
A. 3 – 4 months
B. 5 – 9 months
C. 10 – 12months
D. 13-18 months

78. A condition In which there is an opening on the dorsal surface of the penis is known as
A. Congenital Hydronephrosis
B. Epispadias
C. Hypospadias
D. Teratoma

79. In caring for an infant with cleft lip and cleft palate before surgery which of the following will you consider as the most important
A. Ensuring adequate nutrition
B. Promoting family coping
C. Reducing family anxiety
D. Relieving pain

80. An infant has been transferred from the ICU to the pediatric unit after undergoing surgery to correct a heart defect. Which task can the nurse delegate to the licensed practical nurse?
A. Administering oral medications.
B. Obtaining vital signs.
C. Morning hygiene.
D. All of the above

MEDICINE AND SURGERY
81. What type of surgery is carried out in a patient with compartment syndrome
a. Compartiotomy
b. Mayotomy
c. Fasciotomy
d. Osteotomy

82. For patients with skeletal traction, the main aim of caring for the wound at the skin site is to prevent?
A. Mal union
B. Non union
C. Osteoporosis
D. Osteomyelitis

83. Pick the odd one out
A. Nylon
B. Chromic cutgut
C. Cotton
D. Linen

84. The following are complications of colostomy
A. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
B. Impaired bowel movement
C. Faecal impaction
D. All the above

85. Prostatectomy can be performed by the following approaches except
A. transurethral
B. perineal
C. intrathecal
D. retropubic

86. Intramedularly nailing is used in the treatment of
A. fracture of the shaft of the femur
B. fracture of the neck of the femur
C. slipped epiphysis

87. Male infertility may be caused by all of the following except
A. perineal hypospadias
B. nephrostomy
C. severe anaemia
D. prostatectomy

88. Which of the following is not a method of skin grafting?
A. Thiersch grafting
B. Thick split thickness
C. Pedicle grafting
D. Peterson’s graft

89. Myringotomy tubes inserted into the eardrum:
A. Provide a means of instilling into the middle ear
B. Prevent secretions from drainage through the Eustachian tube to the pharyngeal area
C. Equalize the pressure between the middle ear And the external ear
D. Prevent the eutachian tube from opening during swallowing

90. Obstruction of the urinary tract or failure of urinary peristalsis may result in the condition known as :
A. Pyelonephrosis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Hydronephrosis
D. Hypernehroma

91. Mydriatics are used in the treatment of the eye because they:
A. Dilate the pupil
B. Constrict the pupil
C. Are anaesthetic
D. Reduce infection

92. A head trauma producing a brief loss of consciousness immediately followed by confusion or memory loss is termed
A. Cerebral laceration
B. Concussion
C. Contusion
D. Contracoup

93. When assessing a client with varicose veins, the nurse should expect the client to experience
A. A positive homans’ sign
B. Cramping sensations in the calf muscle
C. Continuous oedema of the affected extremity
D. Coolness and pallor of the affected extremity

94. The most serious complication of an open fracture is
A. Deformity
B. Infection
C. Muscle atrophy
D. Nerve damage

95. Prolonged bed rest after surgery may cause formation of dep vendus thrombosis resulting in
A. Cerebral embolism
B. Coronary acclusion
C. Dry gangrene of a limb
D. Pulmonary embolism

96. The ideal position to place a patient soon after heamorrhoidectomy Is
A. lateral
B. prone
C. seml-fowlers
D. supine

97. Deep vein thrombosis usually originate from the veins In the
A- gastro-intestinal tract
B. lower extremities
C- pulmonary circulation
D. upper extremities

98. A Mid-year old man complained of chest pain and chest x-ray was done for him. The physician noticed fluid accumulation in the pleural space. This is described as;
A.empyema
B. pleural abscess
C. pleural effusion
D. pulmonary effusion

99. All these viral Infections are transmitted through blood EXCEPT
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D

100. The nurse is ready to transfer a patient from the ward into the operating room. Which action of the nurse would be most appropriate?
a. Administer all the daily medication
b. Ensure that the client has voided
c. Practice post operative breathing exercise
d. Verify that the client has not eaten the last 24hours

NMC General Paper 1st Mock Exams Answers

WARD ETHICS
1. D. Malpractice

2. B. Report this behavior to the charge nurse

3. C. Assault

4. B. The narcotic count has been incorrect on the unit for the past 3 days.

5. C. Slander

6. D. The right to refuse treatment; the right to make medical decisions; the right to confidentiality.

7. C. Be aware of clients’ cultural differences

8. A. Administering a medication that causes client harm

9. D. The order is an error, violates hospital policy, or would be detrimental to the client.

10. C. Right to privacy and confidentiality

11. B. Promotion of illness

12. A. I, II, and IV

13. B. Libel

14. C. I, III and IV

15. B. Incident report

PSYCHIATRY
16. D. The depression is lifting

17. A. Alcoholic syndrome

18. C. Voyeurism

19. B. Gansers syndrome

20. A. Paranoid schizophrenia

21. B. Depressive psychopath

22. D. Ambivalence

23. D. Illusion

24. C. Regression

25. C. Korsakoff’s syndrome

26. B. Catalepsy

27.C. Obsessive compulsive disorder

28.D. XXY chromosome pattern

29. B. Repression

30. D. Suppression

PUBLIC HEALTH
31. A. 12 months

32. B. 3 Months

33. B. Thermometer

34. B. To detect unpleasant and dangerous reactions

35. D. Routine visit

36. C. 3

37. B. The first outer pocket

38. A. I & II only

39. A. level A

40. C. Community-Based Health Planning and Services

41. D. I, II, III & IV

42. A. 0.05ml

43. D. Artificially acquired passive immunity

44. B. Intradermally, right

45. D. Measuring of mid-upper arm circumference

OBSTERTIC NURSING
46. D. Height

47. A. High levels of LH

48. D. Superficial and deep floor muscle of the pelvic floor, external and internal anal sphincter.

49. B. 10 units

50. D. 28th

51. A. First trimester

52. B. 15%

53. C. Implantation of the blastocyst

54. C. Involuntary loss

55. D. 28th

56. A. Acute renal failure

57. D. Pituitary gland

58. B. Lie on the left side of the body

59. C. Oestrongen

60. C. Metrorrhagia

61. D. I, II, III and IV

62. B. I, II and III

63. D. Sacrum and ilium

64. A. Alveoli

65. D. Slows down passage of the fertilised ovum and facilitating it to develop

PAEDIATRICS
66. A. A compensatory mechanism

67. B. Treatment of underlying condition

68. D. Suction every two hours

69. D. I have a car seat that I will put in the front seat to keep my baby safe

70. B. Indicate wants by pointing or grunting

71. D. Usual pattern of bowel movements

72. C. Rooting reflex

73. A. Rh negative and foetus is rhesus positive

74. A. Dehydration

75. A. Beriberi

76. D. Encouraged and permitted if the child desires their presence

77. B. 5 – 9 months

78. B. Epispadias

79. C. Reducing family anxiety

80. D. All of the above

MEDICINE AND SURGERY
81. C. Fasciotomy

82. D. Osteomyelitis

83. B. Chromic cutgut

84. D. All the above

85. C. intrathecal

86. A. fracture of the shaft of the femur

87. C. severe anaemia

88. D. Peterson’s graft

89. C. Equalize the pressure between the middle ear And the external ear

90. C. Hydronephrosis

91. A. Dilate the pupil

92. B. Concussion

93. A. A positive homans’ sign

94. B. Infection

95. D. Pulmonary embolism

96. A. lateral

97. B. lower extremities

98. C. pleural effusion

99. A. Hepatitis A

100. B. Ensure that the client has voided

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