NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 2

NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 2

51. Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the:
a. External ear
b. Tympanic membrane
c. Middle ear
d. Inner ear

52. A patient with otosclerosis will show which of the following as an early symptom?
a. Ringing in the ears
b. Blurred vision
c. Headache
d. Vertigo

53. A nurse should advise a client with Meniere’s disease and experiencing severe vertigo to:
a. Increase fluid intake to 3L a day
b. Avoid sudden head movements
c. Lie still in bed and watch television
d. Decrease sodium intake

54. Oculomotor nerve is also called:
a. Cranial nerve I
b. Cranial nerve IV
c. Cranial nerve III
d. Cranial nerve VII

55. A client diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear usually complains of:
a. Hearing loss
b. Pruritus
c. Tinnitus
d. Burning in the ear

56. An open-angle glaucoma occurs when:
a. The pressure increases within the eye from excess fluid or blocking the drainage
b. The lens of the eye becomes opaque
c. The blood vessels in the back of the eye ruptures
d. There is a reduction in the amount of aqueous humour produced

57. A client with refractive error in both eyes should be advised to:
a. Use eye drops
b. Use rigid contact lenses
c. Use corrective lenses
d. Undergo keratoplasty

58. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of retinal detachment. Which of the following will the nurse include in the plan of care?
a. Out of bed to ambulate with assistance
b. Place an eye patch over the affected eye
c. Maintain high-Fowler’s position
d. Restrict visitors

59. In preparing a client for accommodation test, initially the nurse asks the client to:
a. Focus on a distant object
b. Close one eye and read letters on a chart
c. Raise one finger when the sound is heard
d. Focus on a close object

60. A boy, 14 is admitted to the hospital with acute myelogenous leukemia and presented bruises and petechiae over his legs. Which of the following nursing measure would best prevent additional bruises?
a. Brushing the teeth only once per day
b. Trimming his nails short
c. Handling him well with the palms of the hand
d. Gripping him in an arm chair

61. It is important for the nurse to prevent infection in sickle cell patient because:
a. Infection kills instantly
b. Infection can cause sickling
c. Infection causes clubbing of the fingers
d. Infection causes further blood loss

62. Haemophilia, a coagulation disorder results from deficiency of:
a. Factor IV only
b. Factor IV and factor VIII
c. Factor VIII and IX
d. Factor VIII and factor IV

63. Immature red blood cells are called:
a. Megakaryocytes
b. Haemoglobins
c. Reticulocytes
d. Monocytes

64. The red blood cells that have a relatively low haemoglobin F also have:
a. More haemoglobin S
b. Less haemoglobin S
c. Greater life span
d. Lesser life span

65. A client’s vision is tested with Snellen chart. The result of the test is documented as 20/60. The nurse interprets this as:
a. The Client can read at a distance of 60 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
b. The client is legally blind
c. The client’s vision is normal
d. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 60 feet

66. A nurse is assigned to administer the prescribed eye drops for a client preparing for cataract surgery. Which of the following types of eye drops will the nurse expect to be prescribed?
a. An osmotic diuretic
b. A miotic agent
c. A mydriatic medication
d. A thiazide diuretic

67. A miotic agent would always:
a. Improve the sight
b. Induce diuresis
c. Constrict the pupil
d. Dilate the pupil

68. A mydriatic agent would always:
a. Assist the sight of the client
b. Assist to overcome
c. Constrict the pupil
d. Dilate the pupil

69. A client is diagnosed with glaucoma. Which of these indicate a risk factor associated with glaucoma?
a. A history of migraine headaches
b. Frequent urinary tract infection
c. A cardiovascular disease
d. Frequent upper respiratory infection

70. To minimize the systemic effects that eye drops can produce, the nurse plans to instruct the client to:
a. Eat before instilling the drops
b. Swallow several times after instilling the drops
c. Blink vigorously to encourage tearing after instilling drops
d. Occlude the nasolacrimal duct with the finger for several minutes after instilling the drops

71. Which of the following data collected by the nurse is least associated with Peptic ulcer:
a. History of tarry black stools
b. History of alcohol abuse
c. History of gastric pain 2 to 4 hours after meals
d. History of the use of acetaminophen

72. During administration of nasogastric feeding, the nurse places the patient in which position?
a. Stripping
b. Fowler’s
c. Sims
d. Trendelenburg

73. After feeding a patient through a nasogastric tube, the nurse places the patient in which position?
a. Supine
b. Fowler’s
c. Sims
d. Trendelenburg

74. A nurse is collecting data on a hepatitis patient, which of the following suggest a severe damage to the liver?
a. Dark stools, yellow sclera, and dark urine
b. Clay stools, yellow sclera, and blood tinged urine
c. Clay stools, pruritus and dark urine
d. Dark stools, pruritus, and amber urine

75. A nurse planning care for a client with hepatitis, plans to meet the client’s safety needs by:
a. Monitoring prothrombin and partial thromboplastin values
b. Bathing with tepid water
c. Assisting with meals
d. Weighing and recording a weight daily

76. Which of the following finding is commonly found with a client with hepatitis?
a. Blurred vision or diplopia
b. Urinary frequency or urgency
c. Confusion or drowsiness
d. Diarrhoea or constipation

77. A nurse should include which of the following non-pharmacological treatment plan for a client who has peptic ulcer:
a. Continue to eat the same diet as before diagnosis
b. Smoke only at bedtime
c. Learn to use stress reduction techniques
d. Take non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for pain relief

78. In providing instructions to a client with peptic ulcer disease, the nurse tells the client to:
a. Eat foods that will increase gastrointestinal motility
b. Eat at least six small meals per day
c. Eat everything that does not aggravate or cause pain
d. Consume a bland diet only

79. Which of the following drugs will be prescribed for a patient with too little intrinsic factor?
a. Vitamin B12 injections
b. Vitamin B3 injections
c. Vitamin B6 injections
d. Antacid use

80. A client is diagnosed with chronic ulcerative colitis and is anaemic. What caused the anaemia?
a. Decreased intake of dietary iron
b. Blood loss
c. Intestinal malabsorption
d. Lack of appetite

81. Which of the following is likely to cause pernicious anaemia?
a. Decreased dietary intake of iron
b. Hemi-gastrectomy
c. Excessive consumption of iron
d. Reduced level of thyroxine

82. Pernicious anaemia is associated with:
a. Decreased absorption of vitamin B12
b. Decreased consumption of iron
c. Excessive consumption of iron
d. Excessive loss of gastric juices

83. A client will undergo a barium swallow to determine whether a hiatal hernia is present. The nurse instructs the client to:
a. Avoid eating or drinking after midnight before the test
b. Have a clear liquid breakfast only on the morning of the test
c. Take all routine medications on the morning of the test
d. Limit self to two cigarettes only in the morning of test

84. A client with an ileostomy is at risk of developing:
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Respirations
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis

85. A client with tuberculosis who is co-infected with HIV requires that anti-tubercular therapy lasts for:
a. 6 total months and at least 1 month after culture converts to negative
b. 6 total months and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative
c. 9 total months and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative
d. 9 total months and at least 6 months after culture converts to negative

86. A Mantoux test that results positive has induration greater than:
a. 10mm
b. 5mm
c. 3mm
d. 7mm

87. A client with HIV has positive results on Mantoux skin test with an area of induration of about:
a. 7mm
b. 5mm
c. 10mm
d. 3mm

88. A client with AIDS who is taking zidovudine (Retrovir) 200mg PO may present with which of the following as severe effects:
a. Bacteraemia
b. Polycythemia
c. Neutropenia
d. Natraemia

89. A common reaction from taking Zovirax (acyclovir) is:
a. Elevation in WBCs
b. Elevation in blood urea and nitrogen
c. Elevation in platelet count
d. Elevation in haemoglobin

90. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with rheumatoid arthritis reveals which of the following findings?
a. Cloudy synovial fluid
b. Presence of organisms
c. Bloody synovial fluid
d. Presence of urate crystals

91. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with gout reveals which of these findings?
a. Cloudy synovial fluid
b. Presence of organisms
c. Bloody synovial fluid
d. Presence of urate crystals

92. Which of the following findings is suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus:
a. Two haemoglobin S genes
b. Ascites
c. Emboli
d. Butterfly rash on cheeks and bridge of nose

93. Which of the following findings is indicative of sickle cell disease?
a. Raised level of genes
b. A single abnormal beta haemoglobin
c. Two haemoglobin S genes
d. A single haemoglobin S gene

94. After 2 ELISA tests are positive, which of the following test will be done to confirm an HIV positive status?
a. A CD4 cell count
b. A Western blot
c. A bone marrow biopsy
d. A third ELISA test

95. Which of the following is an early sign of Pneumocystis carinii infection:
a. Cough
b. Dyspnoea on exertion
c. Dyspnoea at rest
d. Fever

96. A client exposed to HIV infection approximately 3 months ago will present:
a. Oral lesions
b. Purplish skin lesions
c. Chronic cough
d. No signs and symptoms

97. Which of the following is a sign of Kaposi’s sarcoma?
a. A raised, dark purplish-coloured lesions on the trunk
b. Erythema nodosum
c. Dyspnoea on slight exertion
d. Numerous boils on the body

98. In making dietary changes for a client experiencing nausea and vomiting, the nurse must:
a. Avoid dairy products and red meat
b. Plan large, nutritious meals
c. Add spices to food for added flavour
d. Serve foods while they are very warm

99. In herpes zoster, the common feature is:
a. The presence of red, raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales
b. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis
c. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by virus
d. Presence of tiny red vesicles

100. A client diagnosed with psoriasis presents:
a. The presence of tiny red vesicles
b. The presence of red, raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales
c. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis
d. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by the virus