NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 5

NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 5

201. The purpose of health education is to:
A. Re-inforce the doctor’s instructions for the patient
B. Meet the patient’s informational needs
C. Facilitate a research to be conducted by nurses
D. Create a rapport between the nurse and the patient

202. In atherosclerosis, the deposition of fatty material occurs beneath:
A. The outer lining of the blood vessels
B. The superficial venules and arterioles
C. The middle lining of the blood vessels
D. The inner lining of the blood vessels

203. Myocardial infarction is characterized by a prolonged:
A. Increased supply of blood and oxygen to the tissues
B. Substernal oppression or pain
C. Radiating pains from the heart to the inner aspects of the arms
D. Emotional change due to fear of death

204. Squint occurs when:
A. There is an increased intraocular pressure
B. There is a failure of the visual axes to meet at the point being observed
C. There is a displaced lens
D. The lenses are opaque

205. Squint is also referred to as:
A. Strabismus
B. Nystagmus
C. Meibomian cyst
D. Applanation prisms

206. Nephrotic syndrome represents a group of symptoms that occur with:
A. Signs of increased albumin in the blood
B. Signs of dehydration
C. Signs of heavy loss of protein
D. Signs of decreased body hormones

207. In the management of a patient suffering from nephrotic syndrome, the nurse must know that:
A. The blood has not been infected
B. The patient is susceptible to infection
C. The patient’s voice will become hoarse
D. The patient is helped with corticosteroid if it is associated with diabetes mellitus

208. In caring for a patient suffering from nephrotic syndrome, the nurse should understand that:
A. He may be conscious of the disorder but finds it difficult in coping with restrictions of the course of treatment
B. He needs anti-diuretic drugs to enhance recovery
C. He needs to wear tight clothing to reduce the occurrence of oedema
D. He keeps away from other patients at the ward

209. Right ventricular failure (Right-sided-heart failure) is treated by the combination of:
A. Morphine and frusemide
B. Rest, digitalis and diuretics
C. Morphine, antibiotics and anti diuretics
D. Morphine alone

210. The primary action of the nurse in providing care for a patient diagnosed of severe heart failure is:
A. To prescribe anti hypertensive drugs
B. To restrict patient from performing an activity
C. Talk to patient’s relative about the need to support patient to recover
D. To identify the cause and treat promptly with drugs

211. The primary action of the nurse in attending to an unconscious patient suffering from severe hypertension is to:
A. Serve the prescribed drugs immediately
B. Check the vital signs immediately
C. Inform the physician immediately
D. Inform the relatives of the policy of the hospital

212. In obesity the increased ingestion of energy foods results in:
A. Increased absorption of carbohydrates
B. Decreased absorption of carbohydrates
C. Poor utilization of vitamins and minerals
D. Increased storage of fat in the body

213. An accelerated form of hypertension is referred to as:
A. Essential hypertension
B. Secondary hypertension
C. Hypertensive encephalopathy
D. Malignant hypertension

214. In nursing management of a patient diagnosed of hypertension, the nurse’s priority is:
A. To identify the primary cause and treat
B. Inform the patient that hypertension is incurable
C. To inform the patient that hypertension is curable
D. Restrict the patient from taking food constraining sodium

215. In malignant hypertension the patient often dies from:
A. Progressive release of catecholamine
B. Progressive renal damage
C. Progressive obstruction of vessels
D. Progressive effects of intake of antibiotics

216. Left ventricular failure (left sided heart failure) is best treated with:
A. Intravenous injection of digitalis and antibiotics
B. Intravenous injection of digitalis alone
C. Intravenous injection of morphine, aminophylline and frusemide
D. Intravenous injection of aminophylline and frusemide

217. The complications of obesity include the following except:
A. Depression
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Decreased libido
D. Atherosclerosis

218. To control diabetes mellitus, the nurse should advise the patient to take the following foods in moderation except:
A. Cabbage
B. Bread
C. Fruit
D. Milk

219. In providing nursing care for a client diagnosed of diabetes mellitus, the patient said he enjoys eating pastries. The nurse’s response should be:
A. Take pastries in moderation
B. You should eat pastries freely
C. You must avoid eating pastries
D. Consult your counselor before you take pastries

220. The hormone erythropoietin controls the production of:
A. Platelets
B. Leukocytes
C. Red blood cells
D. The release of prothrombin

221. Which of the following is not a granular leucocyte?
A. Lymphocyte
B. Neutrophil
C. Basophil
D. Eosinophil

222. The failure of the parathyroids to develop is associated with:
A. Over secretion of thyroxine
B. Under secretion of thymus gland
C. Over secretion of adrenal glands
D. Increased or decreased production of iodine

223. Leucopoiesis results from:
I. Adequate circulation of vitamin B12
II. Adequate production of folic acid
III. Increased production of nucleic acid
IV. Increased absorption of copper from the gut
A. I and IV
B. III only
C. III and IV
D. I, II and III

224. The aim of treating leukemia with cytotoxic drugs is to:
A. Improve patient’s appetite
B. Create a plastic marrow
C. Increase production of blood cells
D. Avoid bleeding

225. Which of the following would be employed to correct acidosis?
A. Administration of potassium compounds
B. Administration of sodium bicarbonates
C. Administration of sodium and potassium compounds
D. Administration of emetics and antihistamines

226. The causative organism of guinea worm is:
A. Dracunculus medinensis
B. Filarial bancrofti
C. Escherichia coli
D. H5N1

227. The success of pain management primarily depends on the:
A. Type of drugs to be used
B. Type of pain and its location
C. The therapist and the patient
D. The patient’s pain threshold

228. The basis of administration of placebos does not intend to look at:
A. The therapeutic properties of the substance
B. The concept of holism
C. The physiologic and psychologic reaction of the patient
D. The location and type of patient’s problem

229. The role of patients in the management of their own pain has been ignored because health care providers:
A. Discourage passive patient role
B. Encourage passive patient role
C. Discourage active patient role
D. Encourage active patient role

230. A sudden and severe form of shock resulting from hypersensitive reaction is termed:
A. Oliguric shock
B. Pyelogenic shock
C. Psychological shock
D. Anaphylactic shock

231. In management of shock, the diagnosis:
A. Must be made rapidly
B. Must be ignored
C. Is made by anybody
D. Is not necessary before the administration of drugs

232. The terminal fibres of the olfactory nerves are located in the:
A. Brain
B. Oral cavity
C. Eustachian tube
D. Nasal cavity

233. A patient was admitted to your ward with ophthalmic problem, he has insistently expressed fears of losing his sight. The nurse must:
A. Tell him to raise an alarm if he cannot see
B. Tell him that he will not go blind
C. Inform him to adapt to any form of disability
D. Refer him to the counseling centre if the need is identified

234. When a physician says there is nothing else to be done for a patient, the nurse should know that:
A. There is no need to care for the patient
B. All drugs should be withdrawn from the patient
C. It is up to her to tell the patient and family
D. It is up to her to provide maximum comfort and care for the patient

235. Yoghurt dressing is effective in dressing fungating wounds because it contains:
A. Antibiotics that destroy all organism
B. Antitoxins called peroxide
C. Lactic acid that destroys odour-producing organisms
D. Enzymes that destroy lacto bacilli

236. In caring for a very ill patient wearing artificial dentures the nurse:
A. Must clean them once every day
B. Seek permission from the patient, remove them for keep
C. Remove and replace them periodically
D. Ask patient to clean them always

237. In caring for a weak and very ill patient, the nurse must avoid:
A. Serving him with prescribed drugs that have constipating effect
B. Serving him with prescribed drugs that have less peristaltic effect
C. Serving him with enough fluids
D. Serving him with evacuate suppositories

238. Yellow fever infection has clinical presentation similar to:
A. Guinea worm
B. Dengue
C. Mumps
D. Malaria

239. Recovery from yellow fever is followed by:
A. A temporal immunity
B. An initial immunity
C. No immunity
D. Lasting immunity

240. Patients placed in erect sitting position should be supported by:
I. Bed rest
II. Footboard
III. Elevating the foot end of the bed slightly
IV. Elevating the foot end of the bed only
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. IV only

241. The left lateral position is used for:
I. Washing the patient
II. Massaging the patient
III. Giving enema
IV. Relieving respiratory distress
A. I only
B. IV only
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV

242. The molecule involved in the transport of oxygen within the red cell and that gives blood its characteristic red colour is called:
A. Fibrinogen
B. Haemoglobin
C. Prothrombin
D. Glucagon

243. Oral thrush is caused by:
A. Monoblast cell
B. Myeloblast cell
C. Pluripotent cell
D. None listed – Oral thrush is caused by _Candida albicans

244. The commonest cause of diarrhoea in children is:
A. Viral
B. Bacterial
C. Fungi
D. Spirochaetes

245. In patients with diabetes insipidus, the specific gravity of the urine is:
A. High
B. Low
C. Moderate
D. Normal

246. Nurse Ama would expect a client with mitral stenosis would demonstrate symptoms associated with the congestion in the:
A. Right atrium
B. Superior vena cava
C. Aorta
D. Pulmonary

247. Abena has been diagnosed with aplastic anaemia. The nurse monitors for changes in which of the following physiologic functions?
A. Bowel function
B. Peripheral sensation
C. Bleeding tendencies
D. Intake and output

248. The following are lipid abnormalities. Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis?
A. High levels of low-density lipid (LDL) cholesterol
B. High levels of high-density lipid (HDL) cholesterol
C. Low concentration triglycerides
D. Low levels of LDL cholesterol

249. The following are possible diagnostic findings of a patient with hypoparathyroidism EXCEPT:
A. Positive Chvostek’s sign
B. Positive Trousseau’s sign
C. Decrease serum phosphate levels
D. Decrease serum calcium levels

250. Peptic ulcer may be classified according to the following organs except:
A. Duodenal
B. Gastric
C. Oesophageal
D. Ileal