151. The drug of choice for treatment of severe malaria in pregnancy is A) Chloroquine B) Artesunate injection C) Sulfadoxine-Pyrimethamine D) Quinine tablets
152. IPTp for malaria in pregnancy is given as A) 1 dose B) 3 or more doses of SP C) 5 doses D) Monthly for 9 months
153. The best time to start ANC is A) As soon as pregnancy is confirmed B) 12 weeks C) 20 weeks D) 28 weeks
154. A pregnant woman should gain approximately A) 3-5kg B) 10-12kg C) 15-18kg D) 20kg
155. The purpose of TT immunization in pregnancy is to prevent A) Malaria B) Neonatal tetanus C) HIV D) Anaemia
156. A pregnant woman with severe anaemia has Hb less than A) 10g/dl B) 7g/dl C) 8g/dl D) 9g/dl
157. The best position during the second stage of labour is A) Lithotomy B) Whatever position the woman finds comfortable C) Supine D) Prone
158. Cord prolapse is an emergency because it can cause A) Infection B) Fetal hypoxia C) Bleeding D) Uterine rupture
159. Shoulder dystocia refers to A) Breech delivery B) Impaction of fetal shoulders after head delivery C) Face presentation D) Cord around neck
160. The 4th stage of labour lasts for A) 30 minutes B) 1 hour C) 2 hours D) 24 hours
161. After delivery, the uterus should be at the level of A) Xiphisternum B) Umbilicus C) Symphysis pubis D) 2cm below umbilicus
162. Subinvolution of the uterus is suspected when A) Uterus is firm B) Uterus is larger than expected for days postpartum C) Lochia is scanty D) No bleeding
163. Breast engorgement is best relieved by A) Stopping breastfeeding B) Frequent breastfeeding and warm compress C) Cold compress only D) Antibiotics
164. Mastitis is characterized by A) Painful, red, hot breast with fever B) Painful, red, hot breast with fever C) Hard breast without pain D) Milky discharge
165. The recommended spacing between pregnancies is A) 6 months B) At least 2 years C) 1 year D) 3 months
166. A method of family planning that is 99% effective and reversible is A) Condoms B) IUCD C) Withdrawal D) Rhythm method
167. Depo-Provera is given every A) 1 month B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year
168. The side effect of combined oral contraceptives includes A) Weight loss B) Nausea and breast tenderness C) Increased fertility D) Hair growth
169. Emergency contraception should be taken within A) 24 hours B) 72-120 hours C) 1 week D) 2 weeks
170. Male sterilization is called A) Tubal ligation B) Vasectomy C) Hysterectomy D) Castration
171. The normal newborn reflex that disappears by 4 months is A) Sucking reflex B) Moro reflex C) Grasp reflex D) Rooting reflex
172. Teething in infants usually starts at A) 3 months B) 6 months C) 9 months D) 12 months
173. The EPI schedule in Ghana includes how many contacts A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9
174. Penta vaccine protects against A) TB only B) DPT + Hep B + Hib C) Polio only D) Measles only
175. Rota virus vaccine prevents A) Pneumonia B) Severe diarrhea C) Malaria D) Meningitis
176. Pneumococcal vaccine prevents A) Diarrhea B) Pneumonia and meningitis C) Measles D) Yellow fever
177. A child with pneumonia will present with A) Diarrhea B) Fast breathing and chest indrawing C) Fever only D) Vomiting
178. IMCI stands for A) Integrated Management of Child Illness B) Integrated Management of Childhood Illness C) International Management of Child Infection D) Integrated Monitoring of Child Immunization
179. The first line drug for uncomplicated malaria in children is A) Artesunate injection B) ACT – Artemisinin Combination Therapy C) Chloroquine D) SP
180. Severe dehydration is treated with A) ORS B) IV fluids – Ringer’s Lactate C) Zinc D) Antibiotics
181. Zinc supplementation in diarrhea is given for A) 3 days B) 10-14 days C) 1 month D) 6 months
182. A febrile convulsion is caused by A) Epilepsy B) High fever C) Meningitis D) Hypoglycemia
183. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses A) Pain B) Level of consciousness C) Vital signs D) Reflexes
184. CPR ratio for 1 rescuer in adults is A) 15:2 B) 30:2 C) 5:1 D) 10:2
185. The normal urine output for an adult is A) 10ml/hr B) 30ml/hr C) 100ml/hr D) 500ml/hr
186. A patient with oliguria produces less than A) 100ml/24hrs B) 400ml/24hrs C) 500ml/24hrs D) 1000ml/24hrs
187. The normal blood glucose level fasting is A) 2.5-3.5mmol/L B) 3.5-6.0mmol/L C) 7.0-10.0mmol/L D) 10-15mmol/L
188. Diabetes mellitus type 1 is due to A) Insulin resistance B) Absolute insulin deficiency C) Obesity D) Pregnancy
189. Hypoglycemia presents with A) Polyuria B) Sweating, tremors, confusion C) Weight gain D) Blurred vision only
190. The 5 rights of drug administration include all EXCEPT A) Right patient B) Right dose C) Right diagnosis D) Right route
191. Anaphylaxis is treated with A) Paracetamol B) Adrenaline IM C) Antihistamine only D) IV fluids only
192. The best site for venepuncture is A) Femoral vein B) Median cubital vein C) Jugular vein D) Dorsal foot vein
193. Sterilization by autoclaving is done at A) 100°C for 10mins B) 121°C for 15-20mins C) 160°C for 30mins D) 70°C for 1hr
194. Surgical hand scrub should last for A) 30 seconds B) 3-5 minutes C) 10 minutes D) 1 minute
195. A patient with DVT should avoid A) Walking B) Massaging the affected leg C) Elevation of leg D) Anticoagulants
196. The cardinal signs of inflammation are A) Pain, swelling, fever B) Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function C) Pus, swelling D) Itching and rash
197. A fracture with bone protruding through skin is called A) Greenstick B) Compound fracture C) Simple fracture D) Comminuted fracture
198. RICE in management of sprain stands for A) Rest, Ice, Compression, Exercise B) Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation C) Rub, Ice, Cold, Elevation D) Rest, Injection, Compression, Exercise
199. The normal WBC count is A) 2000-4000 B) 4000-11000 C) 12000-20000 D) 20000-50000
200. Blood group O is called A) Universal recipient B) Universal donor C) Rare group D) Bombay group
101. Which of the following is a danger sign in pregnancy? A) Breast tenderness B) Vaginal bleeding C) Increased appetite D) Mild backache
102. The recommended daily iron supplementation for pregnant women is A) 30mg B) 60mg C) 90mg D) 120mg
103. The normal duration of the first stage of labour in a primigravida is approximately A) 2-4 hours B) 4-6 hours C) 8-12 hours D) 16-20 hours
104. The Apgar score is assessed at A) 1 and 5 minutes after birth B) 5 and 10 minutes after birth C) 1 and 10 minutes after birth D) Immediately after birth only
105. Lochia rubra is characterized by A) Bright red vaginal discharge B) Pinkish-brown vaginal discharge C) Yellowish-white vaginal discharge D) Absence of discharge
106. Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended for the first A) 3 months B) 6 months C) 9 months D) 12 months
107. The best position for a newborn to prevent aspiration is A) Prone B) Side-lying C) Supine D) Sitting
108. Kangaroo Mother Care is used for A) Term babies B) Low birth weight babies C) Post-term babies D) Babies with jaundice
109. A common cause of neonatal jaundice is A) Hypoglycemia B) Physiological jaundice C) Meningitis D) Pneumonia
110. The umbilical cord usually falls off by A) 3-5 days B) 7-10 days C) 14-21 days D) 1 month
111. Which vaccine is given at birth? A) BCG and OPV 0 B) Penta 1 C) Measles D) Yellow fever
112. The normal respiratory rate for a newborn is A) 20-30 breaths/min B) 40-60 breaths/min C) 60-80 breaths/min D) 80-100 breaths/min
113. Cold chain is important for A) Storage of drugs B) Storage of vaccines C) Storage of food D) Storage of blood
114. ORS is used in the management of A) Malaria B) Dehydration due to diarrhea C) Pneumonia D) Anaemia
115. The main cause of maternal mortality in Ghana is A) Anaemia B) Hemorrhage C) Infection D) Obstructed labour
116. A partograph is used to monitor A) Pregnancy B) Labour C) Postpartum D) Newborn
117. The most reliable sign of pregnancy is A) Amenorrhea B) Nausea and vomiting C) Positive pregnancy test and fetal heartbeat D) Breast changes
118. Quickening refers to A) First fetal movement felt by mother B) First fetal movement felt by mother C) First doctor’s visit D) First ultrasound
119. The placenta is normally expelled during A) First stage of labour B) Second stage of labour C) Third stage of labour D) Fourth stage of labour
120. Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss greater than A) 250ml B) 300ml C) 500ml D) 1000ml
121. The hormone that causes uterine contractions during labour is A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Oxytocin D) Prolactin
122. A gush of blood followed by a cord lengthening indicates A) Uterine rupture B) Placental separation C) Cord prolapse D) Retained placenta
123. The purpose of episiotomy is to A) Prevent infection B) Enlarge the vaginal outlet and prevent tearing C) Speed up delivery D) Reduce pain
124. Puerperium lasts for A) 2 weeks B) 4 weeks C) 6 weeks D) 8 weeks
125. The best time to initiate breastfeeding is A) 30 minutes after birth B) Within 1 hour of birth C) 2 hours after birth D) 6 hours after birth
126. A newborn with a birth weight of less than 2.5kg is classified as A) Normal weight B) Low birth weight C) Very low birth weight D) Macrosomic
127. The first stool passed by a newborn is called A) Stool B) Meconium C) Diarrhea D) Colostrum
128. Colostrum is important because it contains A) Water only B) Antibodies and nutrients C) Fat only D) Sugar only
129. The normal temperature range for a newborn is A) 35.0°C – 36.0°C B) 36.5°C – 37.5°C C) 37.6°C – 38.5°C D) 38.6°C – 39.5°C
130. Tetanus in newborns is prevented by A) Giving antibiotics B) Immunizing mother with TT during pregnancy C) Clean cord care only D) Exclusive breastfeeding
131. The most common site for IM injection in infants is A) Deltoid B) Vastus lateralis C) Dorsogluteal D) Ventrogluteal
132. A child with severe acute malnutrition has A) Weight for age < -2SD B) Weight for height < -3SD or edema C) Height for age < -2SD D) Normal weight
133. The F-75 formula is used in A) Stabilization phase of SAM B) Rehabilitation phase of SAM C) Prevention of SAM D) Treatment of malaria
134. The F-100 formula is used in A) Stabilization phase of SAM B) Rehabilitation phase of SAM C) Prevention of SAM D) Treatment of diarrhea
135. Vitamin A supplementation reduces A) Malaria B) Child mortality and morbidity C) Anaemia D) Pneumonia only
136. Deworming is recommended for children from A) 6 months B) 12 months C) 2 years D) 5 years
137. The 3 delays model relates to A) Child health B) Maternal mortality C) Neonatal care D) Family planning
138. PMTCT stands for A) Prevention of Mother to Child Treatment B) Prevention of Mother to Child Transmission C) Postnatal Mother Child Treatment D) Prevention of Maternal Child Transmission
139. ART in HIV management stands for A) Anti-Retroviral Therapy B) Anti-Retroviral Treatment C) Advanced Retroviral Therapy D) Anti-Retroviral Test
140. The window period for HIV testing is A) 1 week B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year
141. Universal precautions include A) Wearing gloves only B) Hand washing and use of PPE C) Cleaning only D) Disposing sharps only
142. Medical waste should be disposed in A) Black bin B) Safety box and incinerator C) Open dump D) Toilet
143. The causative organism of tuberculosis is A) Streptococcus B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) Staphylococcus D) E.coli
144. DOTS stands for A) Direct Observed Therapy Shortcourse B) Directly Observed Treatment Short-course C) Drug Observed Therapy System D) Direct Oral Treatment Strategy
145. The normal blood pressure in pregnancy is A) 120/80 mmHg and above B) Less than 140/90 mmHg C) 160/100 mmHg D) 100/60 mmHg
146. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by A) Hypertension only B) Hypertension + proteinuria after 20 weeks C) Proteinuria only D) Edema only
147. Eclampsia is defined as A) Hypertension in pregnancy B) Convulsions in a pre-eclamptic patient C) Proteinuria in pregnancy D) Bleeding in pregnancy
148. Magnesium sulfate is used in the management of A) Diabetes B) Eclampsia C) Anaemia D) Malaria
149. Gestational diabetes is screened at A) 12 weeks B) 24-28 weeks C) 32 weeks D) 36 weeks
150. The normal fetal heart rate range is A) 80-100 bpm B) 110-160 bpm C) 160-180 bpm D) 180-200 bpm
51. Hookworm infestation can be prevented by A) Daily bath B) Drinking clean water C) Regular hand washing D) Wearing of foot wear
52. The route of BCG administration is A) Intradermally B) Intra muscularly C) Intravenously D) Subcutaneously
53. Diarrhoea in children usually results in death due to excessive fluid loss in the body….. A) Anorexia B) Dehydration C) Hydration D) Lethargy
54. One advantage of female sterilization is that, it is A) Highly effective B) Irreversible C) Performed by a specialist D) Slightly risky
55. The IUD prevents pregnancy by A) Interfering with migration of sperm to fallopian tubes B) Interfering with transportation of ovum into the uterus C) Making cervical secretions thicker D) Suppressing ovulation
56. Household purification of water includes the following EXCEPT A) Boiling B) Chemical disinfection C) Distillation D) Filtration
57. If a child develops a reaction during blood transfusion the nurse should A) Call the paediatrician B) Relieve the symptoms with drugs C) Slow the flow rate D) Stop the blood immediately
58. Which of the following medication would the nurse question when ordered for relieve of discomfort in a child with Leukaemia? A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) B) Acetaminophen with codeine C) Ibuprofen D) Propoxyphene hydrochloride (Darron)
59. The MOST effective way of helping an infant with cleft lip and palate to retain oral feedings is to A) Bubble the infant at frequent intervals B) Feed the infant small amount at a time C) Maintain the infant in a lying position while feeding D) Put the end of the nipple far to the back of the infant’s tongue
60. Ovulation occurs at the A) End of proliferative and end menstrual phase B) End proliferative and onset of secretory C) Onset of proliferative and end of menstrual phase D) Onset of regenerative and end of proliferative phase
61. An erectile cavernous structure below the symphysis pubis… in women is known as…? A) Mons Veneris B) A penile structure C) Symphysis pubis D) Clitoris
62. Which of the underlisted is a presumptive sign of pregnancy? A) Amenorrrhoea B) Braxton Hicks contractions C) Uterine growth D) Osiander’s signs
63. What immediate action would you take when a pregnant woman complains of faintness at the antenatal clinic? A) Find out from her if she has eaten B) Inform the doctor immediately about her condition C) Help her to sit or lie down on her side D) Tell her to learn against the wall and close the eyes
64. Which of these can be precipitated by pregnancy? A) Diabetes B) Eclampsia C) Pre-eclampsia D) Jaundice E) I, II and III
65. Aims of abdominal examination in pregnancy include? A) Foetal abnormality B) Foetal growth C) Foetal health D) Foetal size E) I, II, III and IV
66. A membrane, situated about 2 cm from the vestibule… is referred to as…? A) The hymen B) The vestibule C) The mons veneris D) The clitoris
67. The diet recommended for a mother with pregnancy induced hypertension should include? A) Copious fluids and low calorie B) High calorie and fibre C) High protein, low salt and vitamins D) Low salt and fibre diet
68. A ten week pregnant woman complains of heart burns. To relieve this discomfort the nurse would advise her to do the following EXCEPT? A) Avoid bending over B) Lie on the left side C) Sleep with more pillows D) Take small meal at a time
69. A woman with 32 weeks amenorrhoea was brought… with a history of finding herself lying in a pool of blood… This may be result of A) Cervical bleeding B) Placenta abruption C) Placenta praevia D) Vulvovaginal varicoscities
70. The first medical contact in a healthy woman with pregnancy offers opportunity… EXCEPT? A) Specific dresses for pregnancy B) Establish baselines on pregnancy C) Detect abnormalities of pregnancy D) Determine gestation date
71. What would be considered the MOST important factor in determining the progress of labour? A) Cervical dilatation B) Decent of head C) Maternal condition D) Uterine contraction
72. The first stage of true labor starts with? A) Appearance of “show” B) Backache and pain in the loin C) Effacement of the cervix D) Regular rhythmic uterine contractions
73. Emesis gravidarium may be prevented by the following EXCEPT…? A) The pregnant woman should stay indoor B) Eat before getting out of bed each morning to prevent an empty stomach C) Bland foods: like dry toast or saltine crackers are good choices D) Prevent triggers, like strong smells, that make you feel nauseous
74. An extreme form of morning sickness that causes severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy is termed……? A) Nauseating ailment B) Hyperemesis gravidarum C) Morning sickness D) Pregnancy disorders
75. In managing heartburns in pregnancy, the under-listed may be a remedy EXCEPT…? A) Brief mother on the baby’s condition B) Eat slowly and chew every bite thoroughly C) Eating 2-3hours before bed instead of a few hours before bed D) Stop foods and beverages that trigger heartburn
76. The organisms responsible for maintenance of vaginal acidity are? A) Doderleins bacilli B) E. coli C) Monilia albicans D) Streptococci
77. Which pituitary hormone stimulates the ovary to produce oestrogen? A) Follicle stimulating hormone B) Luteinizing hormone C) Oxytocin D) Prolactin
78. The non-pregnant uterus measures A) 5cm:7.5cm: 2.5cm B) 5mls:7.5mls: 2.5cm C) 5mm:7.5mm: 2.5mm D) 15kg:7.5kg: 2.5kg
79. The termination of pregnancy prior or before 24 weeks (28 weeks) of gestation or a fetal weight of < 500g is A) Demolition of foetus B) Abortion or miscarriage C) Termination of pregnancy D) Prematurity of the foetus
80. Which of the following is NOT maternal causes of abortion? A) Retroverted uterus B) Developmental defects of the uterus e.g. infantile or bicornuate uterus C) Uterine fibroids and Cervical incompetence D) Anal sex
81. The following are types of Miscarriage EXCEPT? A) Threatened or Inevitable abortion B) Incomplete/ Complete C) Silent/delay/missed/Septic abortion D) Medical abortion
82. Which of the following statement are TRUE about the vulva? A) The urethral orifice lies 2.5cm below the clitoris B) The bartholin glands are located in the vestibule C) The prepuce are folds of skins attached to the under surface of the clitoris D) The introitus occupies the posterior two third of the vestibule E) I and II
83. This is a term that applied to an abnormal gross development of the trophoblast… A) Molar pregnancy B) Hydatidiform mole C) Ectopic pregnancy D) Uterine pregnancy
84. The various methods of palpation on pregnant abdomen are ……. EXCEPT? A) Fundal palpation B) Lateral palpation C) Pawlik palpation D) Deep fascia palpation
85. The separation of the placenta from its site of implantation before the delivery of the fetus is known as….? A) Premature delivery B) Prematurity of placenta C) Placental abruption D) Abnormal placentae
86. Which of following management strategy of third trimester bleeding may NOT be appropriate in stabilizing the mother? A) A two Large-bore IV cannula B) Place patient in Trendelenburg position C) Educate the husband immediately D) Crossmatch for 4 units of blood
87. Which of the under-listed is TRUE concerning the effects of placenta previa on pregnancy and labor…? A) Postpartum hemorrhage B) Fetal malformation C) High incidence of fetal hypoxia and mortality and or maternal shock and death D) All of the above
88. …………………is the surgical treatment for cervical incompetence. A) Shirodkar operation or cervical cerclage B) Hysterectomy C) Laparotomy D) Manual Vacuum aspiration
89. What happens once a diagnosis is made after ultrasound scanning? A) Present all of the facts survival, morbidity, quality of life B) Allow the couple time to process the information C) Provide them with additional resources eg genetic counselor, social workers and literature D) All the above
90. A fibromuscular tube extending from the vulva to the uterus forming an angle of 60° with the horizontal plane is known as….? A) Fallopian tube B) Uterus C) Vagina D) Ovary
91. A purse-string stitch of strong non-absorbable suture material is tied around the cervix… in order to…? A) Tighten up the expectant mother B) Ensure pregnancy goes to term C) Prevent sexual intercourse D) Try the pregnancy
92. The anterior and posterior length of the vagina wall is respectively…….? A) 8-9 cm and 10 -11 cm B) 8-9 mls and 10 -11 mls C) 6-9 cm and 10 -15 cm D) 3-6 cm and 6 -19 cm
93. Fundus of the uterus lies A) Below the insertion of the fallopian tubes B) Above the insertion of the fallopian tubes C) Beside the insertion of the fallopian tubes D) Above the insertion of the ovaries
94. Which part of the fallopian tubes does fertilization normally takes place? A) Isthmus B) Ampulla C) Infundibulum D) Tubal ostium
95. This term is used when a patient has had three or more consecutive spontaneous abortions A) Habitual or recurrent abortion B) Multiparity C) Spontaneous abortion D) Simultaneous abortion
96. Cervical incompetence can be due to A) Congenital weakness of the cervix B) Trauma from previous dilatation and curettage C) Laceration from previous child birth is the commonest cause D) All the above
97. The function of the prostate gland is to A) Assist spermatozoa to mature B) Produce lubricant for the urethra C) Produce spermatozoa D) Secrete testosterone
98. In management of placenta previa the nurse midwife must ensure A) Bed rest and restriction of physical activity for at least 24 hours after admission B) Avoid constipation, enemas, and vaginal and rectal examinations C) Continuous observation of bleeding and signs of shock and listening to FHR every 4 hours D) All the above
99. Active management of the third stage of labour includes the following EXCEPT A) Administration of uterotonic immediately after delivery of baby B) Controlled cord traction C) Uterine massage D) Waiting for placenta to deliver spontaneously without intervention
100. The hormone responsible for milk production is A) Oxytocin B) Estrogen C) Prolactin D) Progesterone
1. Obtaining informed consent is the responsibility of the……?
A) Nurse B) Nurse assistant C) Physician D) Nurse-in-charge
2. Badasu complained to the nurse manager that she had been given an injection without consent. Which offence would the nurse be charged with? A) Technical assault B) Malfeasance C) Hypochondriasis D) Somatization order
3. Mrs, Ntow has been very tensed, restless and preoccupied all day. Which of the following activities would you prescribe for her? A) Going for a walk with the nurse B) Participating in a quiz C) Playing a board game D) Reading a book
4. Some aggressive incidents may be prevented by the nurses who have a sound knowledge of the individual patient. This is because the nurse will…..? A) Be able to report objectively about the patient after any violent episode B) Be able to anticipate many situations that may threaten violence C) Obsessive compulsive personality disorder D) Knows the patient’s weakness
5. Select from the list below clinical features that are commonly found in dementia. A) Amnesia and confabulation B) Confabulation C) retardation and amnesia D) Verbigeration
6. Informed consent is a method that promotes? A) Autonomy B) Beneficence C) Justice D) Non malfeasance
7. Which one of this behavioural modification is used to produce deterrent to drinking of alcohol in an alcoholic? A) Antabuse B) Hypnosis C) Relaxation technique D) Systematic desensitization
8. A fail to settle her hospital bill and is not allowed to go home by the nurse on duty. Which legal offences will she be charged with? A) Tort B) Misdemeanor C) Invasion of privacy D) False imprisonment
9. Ethical principles for professional nursing practice in a clinical setting are guided by the principles of conduct that are written as the: A) Good Samaritan laws for civil guidelines B) Ghana Registered Nurses and Midwives Association Act C) Nursing and Midwifery Council Code of Ethics D) Standards of Care from experts in practice
10. A retired nurse stops to help in an emergency at the scene of an accident. If the injured party files suit the nurse would probably be covered by …….? A) Her automobile insurance B) Her home owner’s insurance C) National Care Act D) The Good Samaritan Law
11. The tendency of a demented patient leaving his/her home unnoticed to a familiar place and could not recall land mark features to trace his/her way home is known as………… A) Anterograde amnesia B) Dissociative amnesia C) Visuol spatial orientation D) Wandering
12. An expression of “doctor shopping” is a characteristic behavior of clients with the diagnosis of: A) Body dysmorphic disorder B) Conversion disorder C) Hypochondriasis D) Post-traumatic stress disorder
13. This treatment involves killing cancer cells by freezing them with liquid nitrogen. A) Cryosurgery B) Pyeyosurgery C) Oesteosurgery D) Enchondroma
14. A condition in which the spine in the upper back has an excessive curvature is called? A) Bowleg B) Spine deformity C) Bone waxing D) Kyphosis
15. A chronic bone disorder that typically results in enlarged, deformed bones due to excessive breakdown and formation of bone tissue… is ? A) Paget disease B) Bone disorder C) Kyphosis D) Verome
16. A condition where there is an increased inner curvature of the spine just above the buttocks is? A) Paget disease B) Bone disorder C) Kyphosis D) Lordosis
17. Which of the following is NOT a cause of osteomyelitis? A) Penetrating wound to bones B) Fractures (compound) C) Dermatitis of the bones D) Diseases such as sickle cell
18. Which of the following is the surgical management of osteomyelitis? A) Sequestrectomy (removal of the dead bone) B) Bone degenerative surgery C) Open reduction D) Debridement of wounds
19. The reduction of total bone mass with high rate of bone resorption greater than bone formation is….? A) Osteoporosis B) Menopause C) Osteomyelitis D) Bone decay
20. A condition in which the bone becomes brittle, porous, fragile and lighter is……? A) Osteoporosis B) Menopause C) Osteomyelitis D) Bone resorption
21. The metabolic bone disease characterized by bone demineralization is….? A) Paget disease B) Osteomalacia C) Kyphosis D) Lordosis
22. A ……………is a narrowing in any part of the urethra where there is impairment of normal urine flow. A) Bladder blockade B) Narrowed vessels C) Urethral stricture D) Ureter stones
23. Nasal traumas/fractures can occur as a result of any of the following except? A) In contact sports & fights B) Depressed or deviated Nasal Bone C) Nonaccidental fretting D) Simple or Compound of the nose
24. Which of the equipment below is NOT required for the removal of foreign bodies in the ear? A) Otoscope with removable lens B) Sponge holding otoscope C) Bayonet forceps D) Alligator forceps
25. Trachoma is caused by the bacterium called…? A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) Herpes zoster virus C) Henisorus americanus D) Syphilis
26. The process of stone formation in urinary system is called….? A) Nephrolithiasis or urolithiasis B) Ectopic stones C) Renal tissue emolization D) Uterocalculi
27. Acute hemorrhage from the nostril… could be due to the following except…? A) Trauma to the head/face B) Non vigorous nose blowing C) Nasal defects (deflected) D) Hypertension
28. In anterior epistaxis there is A) Echymosis B) Oedema C) Renal blood loss D) Blood is bright red
29. All the following are features of bulimia nervosa EXCEPT A) Intense fear of obesity B) Distortion of body image C) A known physical illness is present D) Amenorrhoea
30. What is considered to be the most important cause of anorexia nervosa? A) Adolescent adjustment difficulties B) Early weaning from breast /bottle C) Simple phobia D) Endocrine disorders
31. To be effective in meeting various ethnic needs the nurse should: A) Act as if he or she is comfortable with the client’s behaviour B) Avoid asking questions about the client’s cultural background C) Be aware of client’s cultural differences D) Treat all clients alike
32. Kofi angrily accuses you of trying to poison him when you offer him his medication. This is…? A) Displacement B) Rationalization C) Sublimation D) Projection
33. Which of the following activities would you consider most helpful to the schizophrenics? A) Attending a social dance and playing monopoly B) Going for a walk and needle work C) Needle work and reading a magazine D) Reading magazine and Attending a social dance
34. When signing a form as a witness, your signature shows that the client: A) Is fully informed and is aware of all consequences B) Was awake and fully alert and not medicated with narcotics C) Was free to sign without pressure and understands the language of the form D) All of the above
35. Which statement about an institutional ethics committee is correct? A) The ethics committee is an additional resource for clients and health care professionals B) The ethics committee relieves health care professionals from dealing with ethical issues C) The ethics committee would be the first option in addressing an ethical dilemma D) The ethics committee replaces decision making by the client and health care providers
36. The philosophy sometimes called the code of ethics of care suggests that ethical dilemmas can best be solved by attention to A) Relationships B) The client C) The code of ethics D) The faith
37. The nurse puts a restraint jacket on a client without the client’s permission and without the physician’s order. The nurse may be guilty of assault. A) True B) False C) Vilification D) Don’t know
38. The failure of the nurse to question the physician about an order creates an area of ——- because this is A) Liability on the doctor’s part B) Liability on the nurse’s part C) Liability on the hospital administrator’s part D) Liability on the client’s part
39. The nurse is obligated to follow a physician’s order unless: A) The order is a verbal order B) The order is illegible C) The order has not been transcribed D) The order is an error, violates hospital policy, or would be detrimental to the client
40. The following are crucial needs of the dying client EXCEPT…. A) Financial resources B) Control of pain C) Preservation of dignity D) Self-worth, love and belonging
41. What are the stages of dying according to Elizabeth Kubler-Ross? A) Numbing; yearning and searching; disorganization and despair; and reorganization. B) Accepting the reality of loss… C) Anticipatory grief, perceived loss, actual loss, and renewal. D) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
42. To prevent food contamination, the Basic precaution to take is A) Emptying of dustbins B) Using of handkerchiefs C) Washing of fruits D) Washing of hands
43. The Golden Rule of pest control is achieved by A) Keeping area clean B) Killing with pesticides C) Removal of food scrubs D) Use of bins with fitted lids E) I, II and IV
44. The School Health Nurse has the following responsibilities EXCEPT A) Assist in the formulation of health policies for the school. B) Control communicable diseases by immunization. C) Observe pupils daily whether functioning well. D) Provide counseling to both pupils and parents.
45. To train a child to acquire good habits, ensure that he/she A) Brushed the teeth at most once a day. B) Greets friends on their way to school. C) Sleeping with other siblings before adults. D) Washes hands thoroughly before eating.
46. At what AGE should a newborn child receive BCG and Polio? A) Birth B) One months C) Two weeks D) Sex weeks
47. At what age should a child start receiving vitamin A supplementation capsules? A) Birth B) Eleven C) Six Month D) Twelve months
48. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method of family planning is best practiced by A) Two weeks B) Four weeks C) Six weeks D) Eight weeks
49. School health service involves all EXCEPT A) Confirmation of current immunization status of pupils B) Comprehensive assessment and management of care C) Health promotion to promote healthy behaviors D) Reduction in maternal mortality
50. Malaria can be eradicated by A) Keeping surroundings clean to prevent mosquito breeding B) Sleeping under insecticide treated nets C) Spraying all adult mosquitoes D) Use of mosquito netting on doors and windows E) I, II and IV
101. A 42-year-old Musferia Arhin was brought into your ward after a home delivery which resulted in a fresh stillborn baby girl. Musferia was immediately wheeled into the examination room. On examination vaginally, a dark red tissue was observed protruding out of the vagina with evidence of urine leakage. Management of this client may be surgical or non-surgical. However, it will depend on all the flowing EXCEPT: A) Severity of the symptoms B) The health status C) Past obstetric history
102. Madam Asabea Duker was admitted to the labour ward with history of labour abdominal pains. On examination, cervical dilatation was 6cm, membranes intact, contraction 3 in 10mins lasting between 25-32 secs. FH was 110bpm and has been diagnosed as mal-presentation. What would be the possible outcome of the labour? A) Normal labour B) Persistent C) Prolonged labour
103. Madam Baaba Hagan G4P3A has been admitted in labour with the history of labour pains. On vaginal examination, the anterior fontanelle was felt in the anterior part of the pelvis to the left and sagittal suture in the transverse diameter of the pelvis. What is the position of the foetus? A) Right occipito posterior B) Left occipito anterior C) Left occipito posterior
104. Mrs. Aba Addo who delivered in your facility an hour ago started bleeding profusely from the vagina. On examination, the blood pressure was 90/60mmHg, pulse 100bpm, temperature 35.6°C and respiration 24cpm. Her uterus was laxed. Which of the under listed will you do to resuscitate Mrs. Addo? A) Give a uterotonic drug B) Rub up a contraction C) Set up iv fluid normal saline
105. In your anatomy class, you were taught that the study of all genes, interactions between and among genes and environment is termed as………………………… A) Genetics B) Genomics C) Genotype
106. Mrs. Gina Cudjoe with 30 weeks of pregnancy came to the antenatal clinic and her BP was 140/80mmHg. Which of the following is most appropriate for her to do at home? A) Diet should be rich in carbohydrate B) Take more rest at left lateral position C) Decrease regular fluid intake
107. Which of the under listed would need induction of labour at the Regional Hospital? A) Prolonged labour B) Previous caesarean section C) Placenta praevia
108. Madam Frema Nyamekye G2P1A reported to your health facility with the history of dizziness and paleness of hands, lips and palm. Her gestational age was 12 weeks. In assessing the nutritional status of Madam Frema, which of the following anthropometric measurements would you use? I. BMI II. MUAC III. Dietary methods IV. Laboratory tests A) II and III B) I and II C) I and III
109. Madam Grace Bills aged 28 years, was admitted in labour at your facility. The presentation was breech with cervical dilation of 6cm, membranes ruptured and both hips were extended with the knees flexed. What type of breech presentation could this be? A) Frank B) Complete C) Knee
110. With your knowledge on fetal lie in midwifery, which of the following would be MOST conducive to a spontaneous vaginal birth? A) Perpendicular B) Oblique C) Longitudinal
111. At a prenatal class, Manase Moro G3P2, aged 40 years asked about the characteristics of a baby with Down’s Syndrome. Which of the following are the common features you would describe to the class? I. Small low set ears II. Muscle hypotonia III. Open mouth with protruding tongue IV. Broad short finger A) I, III and IV B) I, II and III C) I, II, III and IV
112. Madam Amidu, 37 weeks gestation was admitted in the labour ward with the history of lower abdominal pains, cephalic presentation, cervical dilation 6cm, membranes ruptured. In the cause of monitoring she started presenting with respiratory distress, severe dyspnoea, cyanosis, low BP and strong uterine contraction. What would you suspect? A) Amniotic fluid embolism B) Obstetric shock C) Silent uterine rupture
113. After delivering baby and placenta, misoprostol is given in some cases to ……………. A) Prevent contraction B) Control bleeding C) Abort pregnancy
114. As a Registered Midwife making decisions for both mother and baby during your District Midwifery practice, which of the following would influence your decision to act quickly? I. Changes in the signs of both mother and baby’s conditions II. Signs of excessive bleeding III. The tone of the fundus and breathing of the baby IV. Increased pulse, low blood pressure and pale clammy skin. A) I, II, III and IV B) I, II and III C) II, III and IV
115. Madam Sheila Bramson was admitted to the labour ward with history of labour pains. On examination, cervical dilatation was 6cm, membranes intact, contraction 3 in 10mins lasting between 25-32 secs. FH was 110bpm and has been diagnosed as mal-presentation. What would be the possible outcome of the labour? A) Normal labour B) Precipitate labour C) Prolonged labour
116. One of the medical conditions associated with pregnancy is pregnancy induced hypertension. Which of the following diastolic blood pressure measurements indicates the presence of mild to moderate hypertension during pregnancy? A) 90 to 110mmHg B) 70 to 90mmHg C) 110 to 120mmHg
117. Medical conditions associated with pregnancy have great effects on both maternal and foetal health. Which of the following groups of medications is the MOST appropriate treatment for severe pre-eclampsia? A) Anti-convulsive B) Antidiuretics C) Antihypertensive
118. Preconception education is very important to all prospective couples to prevent abnormalities. Which of the following statements about folic acid and folate is correct? I. An intake of 5mg daily can reduce the risk of neural tube defects II. All women should increase their daily folate and folic acid intake by an additional 400mg before conception and during the 12 weeks of pregnancy III. The main sources of folate are dark green leafy vegetables, fruits and fruit juices IV. The term folate refers to the synthetic used in vitamin supplementation A) II, III and IV B) I, II and III C) I, II and IV
119. During a class on changes in the breast during pregnancy, the following problems were stated by some mothers. Which of the statements indicate that further clarification is needed? A) Breasts are tender and swollen B) Areola get smaller and lighter in colour C) Nipples get darker and more erect
120. Maame Akosua Mensah aged 40 years G8P7A reported at Ashiem Health Center in labour. On assessment, she was found to be in second stage of labour. Due to maternal exhaustion, she could not push. The Midwife on duty scolded and shouted at her. What other range of disrespectful and abusive behaviours of health providers dehumanizes clients? I. Conducting procedures without consent II. Discrimination and threats III. Requesting for bribes for care IV. Shouting and scolding at clients A) I, II and III B) I, II and IV C) I, III and IV
121. At the completion of the third stage of labour, the immediate action of the midwife is to …………………… A) Examine the genital tract B) Expel blood clots C) Check for uterine contractions
122. Maame Akosua Hasia delivered at your facility and started bleeding profusely in the course of managing her. She collapsed and was diagnosed as having obstetric shock. What will be your first line of action? A) Call for help B) Provide warmth C) Replace fluid
123. Madam Akosua Badu aged 52 years G8P6 A plus 2 abortions with 3 months amenorrhoea reported at Ahwea CHPS zone with the history of swollen abdomen, nausea and vomiting. On assessment, her haemoglobin was 7.5g/dl. What education would you give to Madam Akosua Badu on other causes of enlarged/swollen abdomen? I. Abdominal tumours II. Cirrhosis of the liver III. Pseudocyesis IV. Uterine fibroids A) I, II and III B) I, II, III and IV C) II, III and IV
124. Madam Sadia Ackon aged 26 years, 31 weeks of gestation has just been admitted to the maternity ward with the history of amniotic fluid embolism. She complained of anxiety, shivering and sweating. What other clinical manifestations is she likely to exhibit? I. Uterine hypertonus II. Maternal respiratory distress III. Convulsions IV. Maternal hypertension A) II, III and IV B) I, II and IV C) I, II and III
125. Asibi Yahaya, a non-attendant came to your facility with labour pain. On examination, she looked pale with cervical dilation of 4cm. BP was 100/80mmHg, presentation was breech and FH was 120bpm. Contraction was 2-10 lasting between 30-40 secs. You finally diagnosed her as Anaemia in labour. What could be the possible outcome of the delivery? A) Stillbirth B) Post-partum haemorrhage C) Abruption
126. Mawusi Agbave aged 17 years G2P1A reported to the ANC at your CHPS zone for the first time. On assessment, gestational age was 24 weeks, vital signs were within normal range. What other information would you gather on Mawusi Agbave’s past obstetrical history? I. Number of pregnancies II. Mode of delivery III. Outcome of delivery IV. Sex and birth weight of baby A) I and II B) I, III and III C) II and IV
127. Madam Frema Nyamekye G2P1A reported to your health facility with the history of dizziness and paleness of hands, lips and palm. Her gestational age was 12 weeks. At what periods in pregnancy would you check Frema’s haemoglobin level? I. First visit II. 28 weeks III. 36 weeks IV. When necessary A) I, II and III B) II, III and IV C) I, III and IV
128. Which of the following are the importance of respectful maternity care? I. Dignity and respect are given when necessary II. Freedom from harm and maltreatment III. There is equity, freedom from discrimination and equitable care IV. There is companionship that reduces stress and anxiety A) II, III and IV B) I, III and IV C) II, III and IV
129. Madam Kukua Mantey aged 35 years, G2P1A reported at Bilumbu Health Center. Her urine tested sugar+++ and she wanted to know more. Which one of the following would be the nursing diagnosis of Madam Kukua Mantey? A) Anxiety related to effects of diabetes mellitus B) Knowledge deficit related to woman’s responsibility in managing her diabetes during pregnancy C) Altered nutrition more than body requirements related to diabetes in pregnancy
130. Madam Mazah Boafo, a primigravida showed her laboratory results on haemoglobin of 9g/dl to you during your district midwifery practice. What interpretation would you give to this result? A) Moderate anaemia B) Severe anaemia C) Mild anaemia
131. The following are risk factors for gestational diabetes EXCEPT: A) Previous poor obstetrical history B) Family history of diabetes C) Eating habits
132. Maame Gyasiwaa aged 16 years was brought to your facility by her mother with complains of lower abdominal distension with pain, nausea and vomiting, and not knowing her last menstrual cycle. Which of the following are the possible causes of lower abdominal distension? I. Ascites II. Full bladder III. Ovarian tumour IV. Uterine tumour A) II, III and IV B) I, III and IV C) I, II, III and IV
133. A 42-year-old Seyram Duuluo was brought into your ward by after a home delivery which resulted in a fresh stillborn baby girl. Seyram was immediately wheeled into the examination room. On examination vaginally, a dark red tissue was observed protruding out of the vagina with evidence of urine leakage.The most possible contributory factors would be the following EXCEPT: A) Delivery of macrosomic babies B) Weakened pelvic support C) Congenital problem
134. Based on your knowledge of foetal circulation, which of the shunts are present during foetal life? I. Ductus venosus II. Corpora cavenosus III. Ductus arteriosus IV. Foramen ovale A) I, II and III B) I, III and IV C) I, II and IV
135. Adokarley Tetteh G5P4A reported in the first stage of labour with the previous history of PPH in all her deliveries. On assessment, client has poor skin turgor and is anxious about outcome of labour. Which of the following would be your standard of care for Madam Tetteh? I. Explain procedures to client and family and health care team in a simple and clear language II. Assess maternal and fetal status as well as progress of labour III. Do bedside clotting time test IV. Set IV line to secure vein and take blood sample for grouping and cross matching. A) I, III and IV B) I, II, III and IV C) I, II and IV
136. Madam Adjoa Taashi, aged 40 years, G5P4AA, 38 weeks of gestation was referred from the Polyclinic to the obstetric emergency ward on account of ruptured uterus. A second year student asked the Midwife to explain the precipitating factors of ruptured uterus. The appropriate response should include all the following EXCEPT: A) Extension of severe cervical lacerations upwards into the lower uterine segment B) Trauma as a result of accident C) Judicious use of oxytocin in mother with high parity
137. Respectful maternity care is a universal human right due every childbearing woman in every health system around the world. Which of the following are the components of respected maternity care? I. Free from fear or mistreatment during obstetric care II. Have a birth companion III. Choose a birthing position of her choice IV. The woman should have privacy throughout care A) II, III and IV B) I, II, III and IV C) I, II and III
138. Mrs. Dora Atta a Primip who delivered 4hours ago asked the Midwife why her abdomen is still big after delivery of her baby. The Midwife will respond by saying …………………………. A) She would have to examine Mrs. Atta for an undiagnosed twin B) The uterus though empty, is still big and will become smaller after some weeks C) The muscles of the abdomen that stretched would take some time to go back to how it was before pregnancy
139. You delivered Primip at your facility. Which of the following signs on the baby would indicate post maturity? A) Absence of lanugo B) Presence of lanugo hair C) Presence of vernix
140. Which of the following statements about the umbilical cord after birth is right? I. Cut the cord between one and three minutes after birth II. If mother is bleeding or baby not breathing well, cut the cord early III. Delayed clamping of the cord support the baby’s circulatory system IV. Use a sterile sharp scalpel blade or cord scissors A) II, III and IV B) I, II, III and IV C) I, II and III
141. Mrs Osei Tunde G3P2A with 16 weeks cyesis is concerned about physiological changes in the skin during pregnancy. Which of the following falls under the intergumentary system? I. Linnea nigra II. Struae gravidarum III. Telangiectasi IV. Milia A) I, II and III B) I, II and IV C) II, III and IV
