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NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 10

Medicine and Medical Nursing Questions and Answers

NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 10

NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing
NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing

401. Which of the following drug is derived from animal products?
A. Opium
B. Insulin
C. Halothane
D. Atropine

402. Intravenous pyelogram is an investigation used to:
A. Isolate bacteria in the urine
B. Identify tumours in the lumbar region
C. Exclude underlying abnormality of the renal tract
D. Identify the colour of pus from an abscess

403. A typical measle rash that appear inside the mouth and cheeks of a patient is called:
A. Koplik’s spots
B. Leyman’s spots
C. Rose spot
D. Ryle’s spot

404. The main symptoms of measles do not include:
A. Haematuria
B. Coryza
C. Fever
D. Conjunctivitis

405. The germs of bacillary dysentery are called:
A. Salmonella
B. Taeniae
C. Shigella
D. Candida

406. Salmonella typhi is carried by the bloodstream to special cells in the:
A. Lungs
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Pancreas

407. A typical rash that appear on the skin of a typhoid patient is called:
A. Koplik’s spot
B. Leyman’s spot
C. Rose spot
D. Ryle’s spot

408. Salmonella typhi is usually spread to man by:
A. Air only
B. Air and water
C. Water only
D. Water and food

409. The typhoid symptom of food poisoning is:
A. A long fever
B. Severe malaria
C. Abdominal pain
D. Pleuritic pain

410. In amoebic dysentery, a later complication is:
A. Severe diarrhea
B. Intestinal haemorrhage
C. Severe prostration
D. Liver abscess

411. Cholera is cured by:
A. Replacement of body fluids
B. Ingestion of spicy foods
C. Diet restriction
D. The use of antibiotics only

412. In botulism infection, the toxins paralyses:
A. Epithelial tissues
B. Nerve endings
C. All glands
D. Mucous lining

413. Tetanus is contracted by:
A. Contact with the skin
B. Consumption of contaminated food
C. Inhalation of droplets containing the bacillus
D. Exchange of body fluids during sexual intercourse

414. A patient with tetanus infection often dies from:
A. Destruction of nerve fibres
B. Spasms of mouth muscles
C. Destruction of blood
D. Spasms of respiratory muscles

415. Plague is transmitted to man by the bite of:
A. Rats
B. Dogs
C. Fleas
D. Pigs

416. Diphtheria is caused by:
A. Mycobacterium diphtheriae
B. Diphtheriae virus
C. Haemophilus diphtheriae
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

417. Diabetes mellitus is:
A. Not treatable
B. Curable
C. Not controllable
D. Treatable but not curable

418. Which of the following measures will involve a non-pharmacological treatment of acute myocardial infarction?
A. To ensure bed rest
B. To relieve pain
C. To treat complications
D. To prevent re-infarction

419. Acute myocardial infarction is typically characterized by a(n):
A. Reduced oxygen supply to the heart muscles
B. Damage of the heart muscle
C. Increase supply of nutrients containing prolactin
D. Decrease of blood supply to the heart muscles

420. The normal adult dosage of aspirin is:
A. 300mg
B. 0.2G
C. 600mg
D. 2G

421. Which of the following drugs is an anti-platelet?
A. Propranolol
B. Lisinopril
C. Aspirin
D. Nifedipine

422. Which of the following is a good example of a vasodilator?
A. Atenol
B. Lisinopril
C. Hydralazine
D. Nifedipine

423. Cells susceptible to HIV include one of the following:
A. Giant cells + CD4
B. Macrophages only
C. T lymphocytes + CD4
D. Buccal epithelium and astrocytes alone

424. The first case of AIDS appeared in:
A. 1978
B. 1878
C. 1981
D. 1991

425. The human immunodeficiency virus was isolated in:
A. 1978
B. 1983
C. 1986
D. 1948

426. In HIV infected patient, a complete blood count reveals:
A. Neutropenia, anaemia and thrombocytopenia
B. Leucopenia, prothrombin and cholestraemia
C. Normal blood count with low basophils
D. Abnormal blood count but increased neutrophils

427. Every patient suffering from HIV infection should also undergo for:
A. Syphilis serology
B. Serum prolactin
C. Liver biopsy
D. Culture and sensitivity test

428. Which of the following is a common sign of syphilis in its primary stage?
A. Condylomata lata
B. Condylomata acuminate
C. Chancre
D. Small eroded papules

429. Late syphilis is characterized by:
A. Chancre
B. Condylomata lata
C. Soft papules
D. Gummatous lesions

430. Late syphilis occurs:
A. Six weeks after appearance of secondary stage
B. Eight weeks after appearance of secondary stage
C. Two or more years after secondary stage
D. One year exactly after secondary stage

431. In syphilis vaginal chancres are:
A. Rare
B. Very common
C. Common
D. Absent

432. Lymphogranuloma Venereum is a disease caused by infective agent that belongs to the:
A. Lymphogranuloma-pallidum
B. Lymphogranuloma-psittacosis
C. Lymphadenoma pyogenes
D. Lymphadenoma ulcerans

433. The incubation period of lymphogranuloma venereum is:
A. 6 to 7 weeks
B. 4 to 5 weeks
C. 1 to 3 weeks
D. 2 to 4 weeks

434. Ringing in the ear is described as:
A. Buzzing sound
B. Vertigo
C. Otosclerosis
D. Tinnitus

435. In lymphogranuloma venereum, the common glands affected are found in the:
A. Axilla region
B. Cervical region
C. Inguinal region
D. Popliteal region

436. Diabetic ketoacidosis is common in:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Both Type I and II
D. None of them

437. In initial management of a diabetic mellitus, the patient should be given:
A. Glucose 5%
B. Glucose 50%
C. Sodium chloride (0.9%)
D. Dextrose saline

438. A simple non-toxic goiter is called:
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Benign thyroid
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Endemic goiter

439. A common cause of cretinism is:
A. Hypoadrenalism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperadrenalism
D. Hyperadrenalism

440. Which of the following is a notifiable disease?
A. Leprosy
B. Coryza
C. HIV infection
D. Bird flu

441. Which of the following is a non-notifiable disease?
A. Influenza
B. Acute flaccid paralysis
C. Yellow fever
D. Meningitis

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