NMC Past Questions on Paediatrics, Obstetric, Anatomy and Physiology Set 5

NMC Past Questions on Paediatrics, Obstetric, Anatomy and Physiology Set 5

161. The largest body part of in an infant is
A) Head
B) Neck
C) Pelvic area
D) Trunk

162. For children younger than 2-years which of the following is used to measure the pulse rate
A) Apical pulse
B) Brachial pulse
C) Distal pulse
D) Radial pulse

163. The anterior fontanel has the following characteristics EXCEPT
A) It is a diamond shaped
B) It measures 4-5cm at its widest part
C) It closes at 2 months of age
D) It closes 12-18 months of age

164. Permanent dentition begins around
A) 2 years
B) 4 years
C) 6 years
D) 8 years

165. When examining a 2-year old child’s ears with an otoscope, the nurse pulls the
A) Lobe down and forward
B) Pinna down and forward
C) Pinna down and back
D) Pinna up and back

166. Baby Kwame has eyes with wide set position, upward slant and thick pericardial folds. This is a suggestive of
A) Down syndrome
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Mallory-weiss syndrome
D) Post maturity

167. An infant turns towards the stimulus and opens the mouth when the cheek is touch. This reflex is called
A) Babinsky
B) Moro
C) Rooting
D) Sucking

168. The characteristics of second degree burns are:
A) Blister cover the entire burn
B) The child will not feel pain
C) The tissue will be white in colour
D) The tissue will turn bright red

169. The major complication from burns is
A) Infection
B) Oedema
C) Pain
D) Scarring

170. Children with burns should receive a tetanus booster immunization if they have not receive a booster in the last
A) 2 years
B) 4 years
C) 5 years
D) 7 years

171. Which clinical finding should the nurse expect in a 9-months-old with sickle cell anaemia?
A) Fine macular rash
B) Infected leg ulcer
C) Normal haemoglobin level and haematocrit
D) Painful swelling of hands and feet

172. A definitive diagnosis of sickle cell disease is based on which diagnostic results?
A) Blood chemistry test
B) Bone marrow aspiration
C) Full blood count (FBC)
D) Haemoglobin electrophoresis

173. The progression of the lesion is best described as
A) Crust, macule, in chicken pox, vesicle
B) Macule, papule, vesicle, rash
C) Papule, vesicle, macule, rash
D) Vesicle, papule, crust, macule

174. A child with chickenpox is not contagious when
A) All the vesicles have crusted
B) The trunk vesicles have crusted but not those of the face
C) There are still water like blisters on extremities
D) The vesicles are still visible

175. Which of the following disease states would chickenpox post the greatest danger?
A) Asthma
B) Emphysema
C) HIV/AIDS
D) Pneumonia

176. The stool of a 2-year old child with Hirschisprung’s disease can be described as
A) Cord like
B) Large anal
C) Ribbon like
D) Small, hard pebbles

177. Malnutrition during pre-school years can have effect on the child’s
I. Intellectual abilities
II. Resistance to infectious disease
III. Social responsiveness
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II and III

178. Which of the following will result in Otitis Media?
I. Common cold
II. Dental caries
III. Infectious fever
IV. Tonsillitis
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and IV
D) I, II, III and IV

179. The drug to set in readiness for use when a child is rushed into your unit with convulsion is injection
A) Adrenaline
B) Aminophylline
C) Diazepam
D) Hydrocortisone

180. The MOST common complication of whooping cough in infant
A) Atelectasis
B) Bronchiectasis
C) Bronchopneumonia
D) Hernia

181. Which worm infestation would you suspect when a child has marked perineal itching?
A) Hook worm
B) Round worm
C) Tape warm
D) Thread worm

182. Which of the following is an early complication of meningitis?
A) Cerebral Oedema
B) Deafness
C) Hydrocephalus
D) Paralysis

183. Nursing care of an infant with repaired cleft lip should include
I. Keeping the suture area clean and dry
II. Placing the infant in a semi-setting position
III. Preventing the infant from crying
IV. Spoon feeding after surgery
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) I, III and IV
D) I, II, III and IV

184. Ophthalmianeonatorum may be caused by
I. Chlamydia
II. Gonococcus
III. Treponema
A) I and II
B) II only
C) II and III
D) I, II and III

185. What explanation will you give to a 5-year old child on admission with acute lymphocytic leukaemia who is been nursed in isolation?
A) To keep the child away from other children
B) To protect the child from too many visitors
C) To protect the child from infectious organism
D) To provide quiet private environment

186. Kernig’s sign is a characteristic sign on
A) Brain tumour
B) Cerebral palsy
C) Meningitis
D) Osteomyelitis

187. A procedure in which a baby’s blood is withdrawn and is replaced with fresh blood is known as
A) Direct transfusion
B) Exchange transfusion
C) Replacement therapy
D) Top up transfusion

188. Deficiency in vitamin A can lead to
A) Beriberi
B) Opthalmianeonatorium
C) Scurvy
D) Xerophthalmia

189. Children who are at risk of vitamin D deficiency include
I. Low birth weight babies
II. Babies of mother who lack vitamin D
III. Children who live in crowded shanty towns and play mainly inside
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) II only
D) I, II and III

190. Which of the following is the best rationale for delay circumcision in a neonate with hypospadias and chordee
A) The associated chordee is difficult to remove during circumcision
B) The foreskin is used to repair the deformity surgically
C) The infant is too small to have a circumcision
D) The meatus can become stenosed, leading to urinary retention

191. The main purpose of passing an urethral catheter after surgical repair of hypospadias is
A) To decrease pain at the surgical site
B) To keep the new urethra from closing
C) To measure urine correctly
D) To prevent bladder spasm

192. The following conditions are all neurological disorder in infant EXCEPT
A) Exomphalus
B) Hydrocephalus
C) Myelomeningocele
D) Spinal bifida occulta

193. Which of the following illnesses in children will lead the nurse to suspect pneumococcus meningitis?
A) Bladder infection
B) Fractured clavicle
C) Middle ear infection
D) Septic arthritis

194. Which of the following medications would the nurse question when ordered for relief of discomfort in a child with leukaemia?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B) Acetaminophen with codeine
C) Ibuprofen
D) Propozyphene hydrochloride (Darron)

195. How would you reduce anxiety in a child on admission
I. Changing nurse daily
II. Confining child to bed
III. Involving parents in the care
IV. Seeing familiar faces daily
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) III and IV
D) I, II and IV

196. The MOST effective way of helping an infant with cleft lip and palate to retain oral feeding is to
A) Bubble the infant at frequent intervals
B) Feed the infant small amount at a time
C) Maintain the infant in a lying position while feeding
D) Put the end of the nipple far to the

197. The urine output of a neonate with an imperforated anus is associated which of the following
A) Acetone
B) Bile
C) Blood
D) Meconium

198. When developing the preoperative care plan for infant with Hirschsprung’s disease, the nurse is expected to include
A) Administration of soap enema
B) Insertion of a gastrostomy tube
C) Restriction of oral intake to clear liquid
D) Using povidine-iodine solution to prepare the perineum

199. Which of the following assessment would be MOST important to the nurse before adding potassium chloride to intravenous fluid therapy for a child with severe gastroenteritis?
A) Ability to void
B) Baseline electrocardiogram
C) Passage of stool today
D) Serum calcium level

200. What action will you take when a child is rushed to your ward with severe vomiting and diarrhoea?
I. Keep child warm in bed
II. Prepare trolley for infusion
III. Reassure mother of safety of child in hospital
IV. Start oral rehydration therapy
A) I,II and III
B) I,II and IV
C) II,III and IV
D) I, II, III and IV