NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 6

NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 6

251. The basic factors that may cause peptic ulcer do NOT include one of the following:
A. Excessive secretion of gastric acid
B. Inadequate protection of the lining of stomach and duodenum against digestion by a base and pepsin
C. Helicobacter pylori infection
D. Drug eg. NSAIDs

252. In duodenal ulcer, the pain may wake the patient up in the:
A. Middle of the night
B. Early morning
C. Late in the night
D. Late in the afternoon

253. Which of the following agents is described as H2 Receptor antagonist?
A. Omeprazole
B. Sulphathalazole
C. Ranitidine
D. Amoxicillin

254. Which of the following agents is described as proton pump inhibitor (PPI)?
A. Omeprazole
B. Sulphathalazole
C. Ranitidine
D. Amoxicillin

255. The majority of duodenal and gastric ulcers not associated with NSAIDs are caused by the following except:
A. H2 receptor antagonist
B. H. pylori
C. H. influenzae
D. Proton pump inhibitor

256. Non pharmacological treatment of peptic ulcer include the following except:
A. Cessation of smoking
B. Avoid foods that aggravate the pain
C. Relief of anxiety and stress
D. Promote healing of the ulcer

257. Which of the following does NOT cause gastro esophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
A. NSAIDs
B. Hiatus hernia
C. Pregnancy
D. Obesity

258. An enlarged, displaced anal vascular cushions are described as:
A. Anal thrombosis
B. Redundant fissures
C. Haemorrhoids
D. Prolapsed rectum

259. Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of kwashiorkor?
A. Patient is always hungry
B. Patient does not eat enough proteins
C. There is flaky rash on patient’s skin
D. The patient’s arms look thin and wasted

260. Which of the following conditions can lead to bleeding disorders?
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Pregnancy
D. Liver disease

261. Viral hepatitis is commonly called:
A. Endemic hepatitis
B. Epidemic hepatitis
C. Pandemic hepatitis
D. All of the above

262. Whooping cough is an acute infection caused by a bacterium called:
A. Pertussis bacilli
B. Helicobacter pertussis
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Pertussis cyanobacter

263. In whooping cough, the antibiotics given to victims will not influence the course of illness but:
A. Enhances immunity
B. Improves appetite
C. Protects others
D. Destroys organs

264. The tetanus bacteria live predominantly in:
A. Air
B. Soil
C. Water
D. Air and water

265. Sickle cell crises are mostly precipitated by:
A. Oedema and dehydration
B. Oedema combined with dehydration
C. Stress combined with oedema
D. Infection combined with oedema

266. An episode of sickle crisis is characterized by:
A. Circulatory stagnation and thrombosis
B. Infection and increase appetite
C. Increase blood supply to vital organs
D. Increase tissue oxygenation

267. A hereditary disorder that results from deficiency of clotting factors is called:
A. Sickle cell disease
B. Haemophilia
C. Thalassaemia
D. G6PD

268. Which of the following abnormalities should a nurse expect from a 32-year-old man diagnosed with leukemia?
A. Decreased appetite and nausea
B. Refusal of drugs and poor personal hygiene
C. Anxiety and prolonged ejaculation
D. Anxiety and spontaneous bruises

269. A patient receiving antileukemia drugs often requires:
A. Administration of blood products
B. Administration of anti-histamines
C. Administration of anti-emetics
D. Administration of parenteral nutrition

270. Gouty arthritis is usually precipitated by:
A. A reduction in intake of vitamins
B. An increase intake of vitamins
C. An increase intake of purines
D. An increase intake of alcohol

271. Bronchial asthma may be precipitated by the following except:
A. Infections
B. Allergies
C. Hereditary
D. Optimal warmth

272. The diet of a patient diagnosed with peptic ulcer should not include:
A. Fish and liver
B. Vegetables and fruits
C. Spicy foods and orange
D. Blended meat and vegetables

273. Lasix is indicated in the following conditions except:
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Nephritic syndrome
C. Hypertension
D. Status asthmaticus

274. In the body, iron is available in the form of ferritin and:
A. Myofils
B. Haemosiderin
C. Ferrous
D. Iron compounds

275. Which of the following is the best beverage for a client suffering from coronary artery disease?
A. Coffee
B. Cola
C. Tea
D. Lemonade

276. A patient with congestive heart failure is given furosemide, the nurse must monitor one of the following laboratory values to identify side effects:
A. Glucose
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium

277. The commonest complication a patient receiving thrombolytic therapy shall complain is:
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Tarry stools
C. Decrease urine output
D. Orange urine

278. Hordeolum is also called:
A. Squint
B. Cataract
C. Cyst
D. Sty

279. In diabetes mellitus, the priority of the nurse is to correct:
A. Fluid balance
B. Knowledge deficit
C. Altered nutrition
D. Ineffective family coping

280. Angina pain that is unstable and occurs at rest and often at the same time is:
A. Stable angina
B. Variant angina
C. Unstable angina
D. Prinzmetal angina

281. Which of the following will not be prescribed for a patient diagnosed of Meniere’s disease?
A. Increase fluid intake
B. Low sodium diet
C. Vasodilating medication
D. Mild sedative

282. In acute phase of Diabetic Ketoacidosis the priority nursing action is to:
A. Administer intravenous Regular insulin
B. Administer intravenous 5% Dextrose
C. Correct alkalosis
D. Apply an ECG monitor

283. A client diagnosed with NIDDM has blood glucose of 600 mg/dl, the client was experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss and weakness. The nurse expects which of the following diagnoses?
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Hypoglycaemia
C. Hyperglycaemia hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome
D. Pheochromocytoma

284. A nurse has collected data on a client with diabetes mellitus. The FBS is 130 mg/dl, temperature 38ºC, respiration is 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 140/80 mmHg. Which of the following is the most concern to the nurse?
A. Pulse rate
B. Blood pressure
C. Blood glucose
D. Temperature

285. A ……………….. is a simple test for varicose veins:
A. Arteriography
B. Babinski reflex
C. Ramberg’s sign
D. Trendelenburg test

286. Taking a history of a client with right ventricular heart failure the nurse would expect the client to complain of:
A. Dyspnoea, oedema, fatigue
B. Fatigue, vertigo, headache
C. Weakness, palpitations, nausea
D. A feeling of distress

287. Megaloblastic Anaemia is a deficiency of:
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin B12

288. One of the commonest signs and symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia is:
A. Koilonychia (spoon-shaped fingernails)
B. Moon-like face
C. Excessive eating
D. Excessive thirst

289. The narrowing of the pulmonary valve is known as:
A. Balloon angioplasty
B. Pulmonary stenosis
C. Pulmonary oedema
D. Angioplasty

290. Congenital heart diseases include all the following except:
A. Coarctation of the aorta
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Angina pectoris

291. During admission of a client, he appears anxious and says to the nurse, “The doctor told me I have hypertension. My father died of stroke. I wish I had never smoked.” The most appropriate response by the nurse would be:
A. You are concerned about your diagnosis
B. You are feeling guilty about your smoking
C. Trust your doctor; it is important to have faith
D. There have been improvements in hypertensive drug therapy

292. A client complains that low-salt food is very tasteless. The nurse’s best response would be:
A. Let’s consider some alternatives
B. Salt can be harmful to your health
C. Ask the doctor to increase the intake for you occasionally
D. It must be difficult for you, but you will get used to it

293. The best psychological management of medical conditions is to:
A. Shout at patients and relatives
B. Reassure the client and relatives of good nursing and medical management
C. Serve them with a strong coffee
D. Tell relative to go home, leaving the patient at O.P.D

294. An adult with acute respiratory distress syndrome has been placed on mechanical ventilation. The ventilator alarm goes off while the nurse is in the room. The most important initial assessment by the nurse should be to:
A. Check the respiratory rate setting on the ventilator
B. Determine whether the machine has become disconnected
C. Evaluate the client for any sign and symptom of distress
D. Check the ventilator tubing for disconnections and leaks

295. The pleural space, lungs and heart are filled with air under pressure in:
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Tension pneumothorax
C. Open pneumothorax
D. Idiopathic pneumothorax

296. During neurological assessment of a patient with emphysema, the client is pale and restless and complains that he feels jittery and shaky. He states, “I don’t know what to do. No one seems to understand.” The nurse formulates an initial nursing diagnosis of:
A. Knowledge deficit
B. Altered thought processes
C. Ineffective individual coping
D. Impaired verbal communication

297. The following are diseases of lymphatic system except:
A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Elephantiasis
C. Splenomegaly
D. Raynaud’s disease

298. The haemophilic patient may suffer a deficiency of:
A. Christmas factor
B. Fibrinogen
C. Factor V
D. Prothrombin

299. The nurse is performing a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) on a client. When looking at the ECG tracing, as it is printing from the machine, the nurse finds asystole. The nurse’s first action would be to:
A. Call a code and start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
B. Assess the patient first and then check to see if all electrodes are in place
C. Administer epinephrine (Adrenalin)
D. Obtain another ECG machine and repeat ECG

300. After receiving report on the following clients, which of them will the nurse assess first?
A. A client who had cardiac catheterization 2 hours ago and with blood pressure of 92/70 mmHg
B. A client admitted with a pulmonary oedema 2 days ago
C. A client who received pain medication intramuscularly half an hour ago
D. A client with pleuritic pain of three days duration