NMC Medical Nursing Questions and Answers for Candidates-DOWNLOAD NOW

Medical Nursing Questions and Answers

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NMC Medical Nursing Questions and Answers for Candidates-DOWNLOAD NOW

1. In treating peptic ulcer, a quadruple therapy is employed. Which antibiotics are used in this therapy?
A. Metronidazole and amoxicillin
B. Metronidazole and clarithromycin
C. Metronidazole and erythromycin
D. Metronidazole and tetracycline

2. Which of the following conditions is suspected if a patient reports to the hospital with the complaints of right upper quadrant pain which is worsened by taking in fatty meals?
A. Cholecystitis
B. Hepatitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Myocarditis

3. Paracentesis abdominis is indicated with hepatic cirrhosis. Which of the following medications will help prevent the recurrence of ascites?
A. Digoxin
B. Furosemide
C. Nifedipine
D. Spironolactone

4. A patient with aneurysm presents with sudden intense and persistent chest pain that radiates to the back. She also has low blood pressure and shortness of breath. Which type of aneurysm is the patient suffering from?
A. Aortic
B. Cerebral
C. Thoracic
D. Ventricular

5. In a tutorial class, the lecturer mentioned that, the amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle of the heart in one contraction is known as……………….
A. Cardiac output
B. Cardiac volume
C. Stroke volume
D. Tidal volume

6. A patient was admitted into your ward with haemoptysis, weakness and cough. Which of the following respiratory disorders is the patient suffering from?
A. Asthma
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Empyema
D. Pneumonia

7. A nurse is assessing a patient with typhoid fever and observes that the patient has fever with rose coloured spots on the abdomen. This indicates that the patient is in his……………week of infection.
A. First
B. Fourth
C. Second
D. Third

8. The nurse explained to a patient with airflow irritation on pursed breathing because it will……………….
A. Facilitate oxygen intake
B. Help with carbon dioxide elimination
C. Improve ventilation and perfusion
D. Improve electrolyte balance

9. A patient on your ward complained of tiredness, feelings of numbness, nausea, vomiting and palpitations. His laboratory results read Na+ 140mEq/L, K+ 6mEq/L and calcium 9mg/dl. Which electrolyte imbalance is the patient suffering from?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyponatremia

10. You will encourage a patient with gout to………..in order to prevent recurrence of the condition.
A. Drink more water
B. Take in more lean meat
C. Take in more milk
D. Take more vegetables

11. A client comes to the ward with the history of weight loss, weakness and increased urinary output. A junior colleague suspects diabetes mellitus. What differentiates diabetes mellitus from diabetes insipidus? Increased………………
A. Fatigue
B. Hunger
C. Palpitation
D. Thirst

12. Patients with chronic renal failure are prone to having metabolic acidosis. This is due to……………………
A. High hydrogen, high ammonia, high bicarbonate
B. High hydrogen, low ammonia, low bicarbonate
C. Low hydrogen, high ammonia, low bicarbonate
D. Low hydrogen, low ammonia, high bicarbonate

13. A patient with cerebral meningitis is on your ward. In assessing the patient, the earliest sign of increasing intracranial pressure would be…………………….
A. Change in level of consciousness
B. Change in mobility
C. Delayed response to verbal questions
D. Slowing of speech

14. Paul was admitted into the ward with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). When planning care, the nurse should consider the following EXCEPT:
A. Correction of electrolyte imbalances
B. Dietary regimen
C. Fluid replacement
D. Temperature control

15. A nursing diagnosis of “fluid and electrolyte imbalance related to fluid loss or shifts” is made for a patient with DKA. The nurse must prepare to set up which of the following IV fluids?
A. 0.9% normal saline
B. 4.3% in 1/5 normal saline
C. Dextrose in saline
D. Ringers Lactate

16. In educating a patient on fluid volume excess, the nurse emphasizes that oedema can occur as result of the following EXCEPT……………pressure
A. Decreased capillary oncotic
B. Decreased intracellular oncotic
C. Increased capillary fluid
D. Increased interstitial oncotic

17. Madam Akua Mansa was diagnosed of hypokalemia. Tablet Slow-K 20mg daily was prescribed for her, the nurse teaches Madam Mansa to…………..
A. Crush or chew the tablet before swallowing for quicker absorption
B. Monitor pulse and blood pressure before and after taking medication
C. Take each dose 30 minutes before a meal
D. Take each dose with a meal and a full glass of water

18. You are assessing an old woman who has been diagnosed of pneumonia. Which of the following statements by the relatives indicate she has aspiration pneumonia? She……
A. Has been coughing for the past 6 months
B. Has been treated for cough about 6 months ago
C. Has over eaten her porridge
D. Started coughing after taking in porridge this morning

19. A patient diagnosed of chronic oesophagitis has been booked for oesophagogastroduodenoscopy. The nurse must encourage the patient to be on nil per os up to……hours prior to the examination
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12

20. The nurse is educating students on psoriasis. She tells them that the following are types of psoriasis EXCEPT:
A. Erythrodermic
B. Nail
C. Plaque
D. Tuberculoid

21. Kofi Boamah reported to the eye clinic with the complaints of blurred vision, eye pain with nausea and vomiting. The nurse must expect………..pressure.
A. Decreased intracranial
B. Decreased intraocular
C. Increased intracranial
D. Increased intraocular

22. Colchicine is prescribed for Madam Akua Adoma who is diagnosed of gout. The common side effect of the drug is…….
A. Constipation
B. Diarrhoea
C. Dizziness
D. Headache

23. Mrs. Hadi is being assessed by the nurse following the treatment of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease. Which of the following findings may suggest hyperthyroidism?
A. Chronic indigestion
B. Increased sensitivity to cold
C. Massive weight gain
D. Massive weight loss

24. Haemodialysis is prescribed for Mr. Osei who is diagnosed of end stage renal failure. Which of the following should be considered when planning his diet?
A. Caloric restriction
B. High calorie diet
C. High protein diet
D. Protein restriction

25. Ms. Freda Adu is diagnosed of acute pyelonephritis. The nurse should elicit for tenderness at the…………….angle.
A. Coccygeal
B. Costophrenic
C. Costovertebral
D. Lumbosacral

26. Which of the following neurological symptoms may be exhibited by Madam Maku Teye, a patient who is diagnosed of ischaemic stroke?
A. Dysachesia
B. Dysarthria
C. Dystrasis
D. Dyschymia

27. As a charge nurse performing assessment on a 20-year-old man with sickle cell, which of the following findings require immediate intervention?
A. Hb of 6.5g/dl
B. Malaria parasite
C. Multiple leg ulcers
D. Painful erection

28. A nursing diagnosis of “impaired verbal communication related to brain damage” is made for a patient with ischaemic stroke. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?
A. Allow patient to ask questions about words he does not understand
B. Establish eye contact when communicating with patient
C. Establish good rapport to enable patient talk
D. Provide paper and pen for patient to write

29. Mr. Amadu reported to the emergency unit with right upper quadrant pain with heartburns. What is the most likely cause of his complaints?
A. Acute gastric ulcer
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Chronic gastric ulcer
D. Chronic pancreatitis

30. In preparing a patient booked for paracentesis abdominis, you will explain to them that the needle should be inserted…..
A. 2-4cm above the umbilicus
B. 5-6cm above the umbilicus
C. Between the 4th and 5th intercostal space
D. Mid-line halfway between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis

31. The nurse is assessing a patient with stroke. Which of the following findings suggests haemorrhagic stroke?
A. Headache
B. Hoarseness of voice
C. Impaired speech
D. Presence of ptosis and facial drop

32. Madam Ama Esi, aged 40 was rushed to the emergency unit with the history of difficulty in breathing, cough and chest pain. Patient was diagnosed with bronchial asthma. With the complaint difficulty in breathing, which of the following nursing diagnosis would be correct?
A. Caregiver role strain related to dyspnoea
B. Impaired physical mobility related to dyspnoea
C. Ineffective breathing pattern related to dyspnoea
D. Self-care deficit related to dyspnea

33. A patient on admission, diagnosed with heart failure and receiving treatment starts vomiting with diarrhoea. He also experienced abdominal pain. Which of the following medications might be responsible for these manifestations?
A. Digoxin
B. Diuretics
C. Hydralazine
D. Propranolol

34. Having worked with patients with heart failure, which is the most common cause of heart failure?
A. Coronary artery disease
B. Emphysema
C. Empyema
D. Hypertension

35. In managing hypertension, a calcium channel blocker is usually prescribed. Which of the following drugs belong to this class of medication?
A. Amlodipine
B. Bumetanide
C. Lisinopril
D. Propranolol

36. A patient with peptic ulcer disease at the ward reports to you that she normally feels a burning pain mostly around 1-3am. This suggests which type of peptic ulcer?
A. Duodenal
B. Gastric
C. Jejunal
D. Oesophageal

37. Sodium and water may be restricted in diets of renal patients as they contribute to….
A. Hyperlipidemia
B. Hypertension
C. Increased hypocalcaemia
D. Uraemia

38. Carbohydrates form bulk of meals for most people in Africa. The three main groups of carbohydrates are…………
A. Cellulose, monosaccharides and fructose
B. Disaccharides, monosaccharides and polysaccharides
C. Monosaccharides, galactose and polysaccharides
D. Polysaccharides, glucose and sucrose

39. The end products of digestion are stored in different parts of the body. Glycogen which is one of such products is stored in which part of the body?
A. Heart and lungs
B. Liver and muscles
C. Pancreas and gallbladder
D. Small and large intestines

40. Patients who have untreated urethral discharge with STIs are likely to suffer the adverse effects of………
I. Chancroid
II. Epidydimo-orchitis
III. Infertility
IV. Urethral strictures
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. II, III and IV

41. The nurse is teaching Madam Akyaa, a vegetarian on her diets. She tells her that to prevent megaloblastic anaemia, she should supplement her diet with vitamin B……
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 12

42. Mr. Yaw Boateng tells the nurse that his son becomes pale and jaundiced anytime he takes anti-malarial and NSAIDs. The nurse explains to him that he should have his son tested for……………
A. Complete blood count
B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C. G6PD deficiency
D. Sickling and Hb electrophoresis

43. Mrs. Ann Pabby, a known asthma patient was rushed to the emergency unit with the complaints of cough, difficulty in breathing. The MOST appropriate intervention by the nurse would be to administer……………
A. Intranasal oxygen at 4L/min
B. IV Amoxiclav 1.2g
C. Salbutamol aerosol 4mg
D. Tablet Ventolin 4mg

44. In educating a group of pregnant women on diet during pregnancy, you will tell them to eat foods rich in vitamin D and Calcium to prevent……………
A. Osteoclasis
B. Osteomalacia
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Osteoporosis

45. Ms. Vivian Ametefe has been diagnosed of urethritis. The MOST common symptom of this condition is…………
A. Dysuria
B. Haematuria
C. Urethral discharge
D. Vaginal discharge

46. A 13-year-old girl was rushed to the emergency unit with the history of seizures and fever. The nurse on assessment discovered an infected leg ulcer. Which of the following could be the possible diagnosis?
A. Cerebral fever
B. Epilepsy
C. Meningitis
D. Tetanus

47. Mr. Janis Abdul reported to the hospital with painful itchy blisters suspected to be herpes zoster infection. The nurse must consider requesting for which of the following investigations primarily?
A. Blood glucose levels
B. Complete blood count
C. ELISA
D. Haemoglobin test

48. Madam Alice Mensah, a type I diabetic patient complains of numbness in both feet. The nurse explains to her that………….neuropathy is common in diabetes and would resolve once there is good glycaemic control.
A. Autonomic
B. Generalized
C. Pedal
D. Peripheral

49. In managing a patient with pulmonary embolism, which of the following actions by the nurse is MOST appropriate? Administer……………
A. Intranasal oxygen
B. IV fluids
C. Oral aspirin
D. Oxygen by facial mask

50. A definitive diagnosis of sickle cell disease is based on which diagnostic result?
A. Bone marrow aspiration
B. Full blood count
C. Haemoglobin electrophoresis
D. Sickling test

51. When a patient is taking a course of sulphonamides, the nurse should…………
A. Advice patient to drink more fluids
B. Advice patient to avoid eating fatty foods
C. Check blood pressure twice daily
D. Check pulse rate and rhythm twice daily

52. A patient with cardiac disease who has been in pains for some days was admitted at the female medical ward. Upon assessment, she was diagnosed as having coronary thrombosis. Such pain caused by coronary thrombosis is primarily by………
A. Arterial spasm
B. Blocking of the coronary veins
C. Irritation of nerve endings in the cardiac plexus
D. Ischaemia of the cardiac muscles

53. The following are clinical manifestations of Addison’s disease EXCEPT:
A. Darkening of scars
B. Hirsutism
C. Hypoglycaemia
D. Hypotension

54. The following are possible diagnostic findings of a patient with hypoparathyroidism EXCEPT:
A. Positive Chvostek’s sign
B. Positive Trousseau’s sign
C. Decrease serum phosphate levels
D. Decrease serum calcium levels

55. In patients with diabetes insipidus, the specific gravity of the urine is:
A. High
B. Low
C. Moderate
D. Normal

56. Nurse Ama would expect a client with mitral stenosis would demonstrate symptoms associated with the congestion in the:
A. Right atrium
B. Superior vena cava
C. Aorta
D. Pulmonary

57. Abena has been diagnosed with aplastic anaemia. The nurse monitors for changes in which of the following physiologic functions?
A. Bowel function
B. Peripheral sensation
C. Bleeding tendencies
D. Intake and output

58. The following are lipid abnormalities. Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis?
A. High levels of low-density lipid (LDL) cholesterol
B. High levels of high-density lipid (HDL) cholesterol
C. Low concentration triglycerides
D. Low levels of LDL cholesterol

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