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NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 8

351. The classical signs and symptoms of nephrotic syndrome does not include:
A. Cholestraemia
B. Hyponatraemia
C. Hyperalbuminaemia
D. Oedema

352. In genital herpes, the dormant virus in the body is reactive when:
A. There is dysuria
B. There is increased sexual activity
C. There is lowered body immunity
D. There is destruction of red blood cells

353. Secondary gout may develop in conditions that results in marked breakdown of:
A. Body cells
B. Carbohydrates and fats
C. Enzymic reaction
D. Cellular nucleic acid

354. In diabetes mellitus, polyuria and polydypsia results from:
A. Osmotic diuresis
B. Increased diffusion
C. Increased erythrocytosis
D. Damaged nephrons

355. The type II diabetes mellitus commonly affects:
A. Newly born children
B. Persons less than 30 years
C. Persons over 30 years
D. Person with hypertension and kidney failure

356. Macro vascular changes that occur in diabetes mellitus include:
A. Retinopathy
B. Coronary artery disease
C. Nephropathy
D. Neuropathy

357. Rapid-acting insulin drugs often works within:
A. 20 hours
B. 15 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 1 hour

358. In leukemias, the recurrent infections usually results from:
A. Low haemoglobin levels
B. Low platelet count
C. Low leukocyte count
D. Low plasma prothrombin

359. Which of the following is a classical feature of tetanus?
A. Vomiting
B. Pyrexia
C. Cyanosis
D. Trismus

360. In teaching a client who has been diagnosed of prostate cancer and put on diethylstilbesterol, the nurse should tell him he probably will experience which side effects?
A. Priapism and increased libido
B. Hoarseness and muscular hypertrophy
C. Hirsutism and ascites
D. Gynaecomastia and high-pitched voice

361. In bronchiectasis, the destruction of the lung tissue often occurs at the:
A. Bifurcation of the bronchi
B. Lower dependent segment*
C. Hilum of the lungs
D. Visceral pleural covering of the lungs

362. A male client is receiving antihypertensive drugs. Which of these potential side effects would be most important for the nurse to discuss with him?
A. Nasal stiffness
B. Impotence
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Postural hypotension

363. A Client admitted with pulmonary oedema was put on digoxin 0.25mg daily, Furosemide 40mg daily and nasal oxygen therapy at 2 liters/minute. To evaluate the effectiveness of digoxin, the nurse should observe for:
A. Increased urine output
B. Increased pulse rate
C. Lowered blood pressure
D. Decreased respiratory rate

364. Which of the following should not be considered by the nurse when she is giving care to a client diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Social needs
B. Nutritional needs
C. Spiritual needs
D. Sexual needs

365. Which of the following plays a large role in determining a person’s susceptibility to pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Social conditions
B. Nutritional conditions
C. Spiritual conditions
D. Sexual conditions

366. Which of the following is not among diagnostic signs and symptoms of pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Persistent cough
B. Vomiting
C. Pleuritic or chest pain
D. Breathlessness

367. When a patient dies within 24 hours of admission to the hospital, the death is declared as:
A. Illegal case
B. Coroner’s case
C. Autopsy case
D. Brought in dead

368. The last offices is performed for a dead person about:
A. An hour after the patient has died
B. Thirty minutes after the patient has died
C. Immediately the patient has died
D. 24 hours after the patient has died

369. Fat is broken down in the gut into:
A. Glycerol, fatty acids and amino acids
B. Glycerol, polysaccharides and vitamins
C. Glycerol, fatty acids and monoglycerides
D. Glycerol, fatty acids and proteins

370. Management of diabetes mellitus is directed toward:
A. Reducing metabolic activities
B. Establishing and maintaining metabolic control
C. Treatment of complications to avoid death
D. Increasing the body’s insulin resistance

371. A client is told that a tuberculin test is positive. Which statement would indicate that the client understands the test results?
A. I have had previous exposure to tuberculosis
B. I have immunity and cannot develop the disease
C. I currently have active tuberculosis
D. I have a reactivation of a healed primary lesion

372. In caring for a client with diarrhea, the nurse’s priorities include the following except:
A. Removal of the cause of the diarrhea
B. Changing the diet to remove spicy foods
C. Use drug immediately
D. Encourage client to drink copious fluids

373. Which of the following findings by the nurse would indicate that the client is having an insulin reaction?
A. Air hunger and acetone breath
B. Vomiting and flushed skin
C. Nausea and headache
D. Confusion and diaphoresis

374. The cardinal signs and symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis include the following except:
A. Air hunger and acetone breath
B. Vomiting and flushed skin
C. Nausea and headache
D. Confusion alone

375. Which of the following types of leukemia has an abrupt onset?
A. Both acute and chronic
B. Only acute
C. Only chronic
D. None of the above

376. Which of the following is not a mitotic inhibitor used to treat leukemia?
A. Vinblastine
B. Vincristine
C. Theocristin
D. Etoposide

377. In communication, the nurse’s ability to convey openness, non-judgmental attitude, and a desire to hear what the client has to say is described as:
A. Sympathy
B. Reflection
C. Respect
D. Empathy

378. A client presents at the out-patient department with a complaint of severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea for 5 days. He is weak, and has lost weight and the skin turgor is poor. The initial nursing action is to:
A. Start parenteral nutrition
B. Check vital signs
C. Start naso-gastric feeding
D. Check other signs of dehydration

379. A physician’s prescription ordered for a client reads injection cloxacillin 125 mg i.m. The medication vial states 100 mg per ml. How many milliliters of the drug should the nurse draw into the syringe for injection?
A. 125 ml
B. 12 ml
C. 1250 ml
D. 1.25 ml

380. Mr. Sam is recovering from hepatitis. The nurse recognizes the need to report which laboratory result to the physician?
A. Hepatitis B Surface Antigen (HBsAg) that is elevated
B. Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST) that is slightly elevated
C. Delta Antigen (DA) that is slightly elevated
D. Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) that is significantly elevated

381. Mrs. Farmer was discharged home while receiving treatment for tuberculosis, which of the following instructions should be given to her by the nurse to decrease the possibility of spreading the infection?
A. Wear mask when at home with her family members
B. Cover the nose initially with handkerchief when in contact with people living outside her family
C. Have a weekly sputum culture to ensure complete treatment
D. Obtain a BCG vaccination as a booster

382. In planning a care for a client suffering from tuberculosis, the most important factor for the nurse to consider is:
A. Tuberculosis is a respiratory infection that requires airborne precaution
B. The client will need increased fluid intake to at least 3000ml per day
C. The client will need assistance in performing her daily activities
D. The client will need to be taught proper breathing techniques

• 383. Which of the following is not a clinical indication of circulatory overload?
  A. Decreased blood pressure
  B. Moist productive cough
  C. Increased blood pressure
  D. Blurred vision

384. A nurse planning to care for a client with human immuno-deficiency virus (HIV) should understand that the most important principle to decrease the risk of spreading the infection is:
A. To know the HIV status of every client in the unit
B. Ensure enough distance away from the patient when providing care
C. To know how and when to use personal protective equipment supplied
D. To determine whether the client has been placed in protective isolation

385. Which of the following is the best beverage for a client suffering from coronary artery disease?
A. Coffee
B. Cola
C. Tea
D. Lemonade

386. A patient with CHF is given lasix (frusemide), the nurse must monitor which of the following laboratory values to identify any side effects?
A. Glucose
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium

387. The commonest complication a patient receiving thrombolytic therapy shall complain is:
A. Nausea
B. Tarry stools
C. Decrease urine output
D. Vomiting

388. Sexual transmission of viral hepatitis is less common but can occur among:
A. All homosexuals
B. Male homosexuals
C. Female homosexuals
D. None of homosexuals

389. Which of the following will not be prescribed for a patient diagnosed of Meniere’s disease?
A. Increased fluid intake
B. Low salt intake
C. Vasodilating drug
D. Mild sedative

390. Hordeolum is also called:
A. Squint
B. Scan
C. Cyst
D. Sty

391. In diabetic mellitus, the priority of the nurse is to correct:
A. Poor family coping
B. Fluid balance
C. Altered nutrition
D. Activity tolerance

392. In acute phase of diabetic ketoacidosis, the priority of the nursing action is to plan to:
A. Administer i.v. regular insulin
B. Administer i.v 5% Dextrose
C. Apply and monitor ECG
D. Apply cold water to the body

393. A client diagnosed of NIDDM has a blood glucose of 600mg/dl, he was experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss and weakness. The nurse expects which of the following diagnoses?
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Hypoglycaemia
C. Hyperglycaemia hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome
D. Pheochromocytoma

394. A nurse has collected data on a client with diabetic mellitus. The FBS was 130mg/dl, temperature was 38°C, respiration was 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 140/80mmHg. Which of the following findings is most concern to the nurse?
A. Respiration
B. Blood pressure
C. Blood glucose
D. Temperature

395. A nurse should not give a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) one of the following food items:
A. Leafy green vegetables
B. Catsup
C. Cooked cereals
D. Sherbet

396. Which of the following statements indicate that a client understands the preventive measures of thrombophlebitis?
A. I need to avoid pregnancy by taking oral contraceptives
B. I should avoid sitting or standing in one position for long periods
C. I can finally stop wearing these support stockings that you gave me
D. I will be sure to maintain my fluid intake to at least four glasses a day

397. A 52 year old man weighs 110kg, his blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg and RBS is 130mg/dl. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask the client first?
A. Do you exercise regularly
B. Are you considering losing weight
C. Is there a history of diabetes in your family
D. When was the last time you had your blood pressure checked

398. Which of the following is not a non-modifiable risk factor of coronary artery disease?
A. Smoking
B. Age
C. Gender
D. Race

399. In caring for a patient who has complained of dizziness and headache after taking nitroglycerin, the nurse’s priority is:
A. Take client’s blood pressure
B. Tell client not to worry
C. Serve client with acetaminophen
D. Report the findings to the physician

400. As the nurse sends a client with myocardial infarction to the bathroom, the client complains of chest pains. The nurse must:
A. Tell client to stand still and take client’s blood pressure
B. Assist the client to get back to the bed
C. Serve client with the prescribed antihypertensive
D. Report the episode immediately to the physician

NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 7

301. The nurse is transfusing red blood cells to a client who begins to develop shortness of breath, rales respiration and hypertension. The nurse should document that the client is experiencing the signs of:
A. A transfusion reaction
B. Anaphylactic shock
C. Fluid overload
D. Sepsis

302. The client is receiving chemotherapy for leukemia and is in protective isolation. His wife comes to visit. She asks the nurse if she has to put on a mask before visiting him. The nurse should recommend that the woman:
A. Put the mask on before entering the room
B. Speak to her husband from the doorway but not enter the room even with a mask
C. Does not put on the mask if she is not comfortable
D. Put on a mask and change it frequently while in the room

303. Collection of pus in the pleural cavity is known as:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Emphysema
C. Empyema
D. Pulmonary embolism

304. The mother of a four-year-old child with leukemia was admitted to the ward. Which of the following responses would indicate to the nurse that the client’s mother understands the prognosis?
A. She’s lost so much weight
B. I want to transfer her to another hospital
C. When does the next course of chemotherapy begin?
D. Will hospice help us care for her?

305. A low-protein diet has been prescribed for a client. Which of these foods, if selected by the client, indicates to the nurse his/her understanding of the diet?
A. Eggs, toast and hot chocolate
B. Refined beans, corn and cola
C. Apple sauce, potato and orange juice
D. Few slices of baked chicken, chicken, chick peas and milk

306. Fresh frozen plasma is normally transfused to patients with:
A. Haemophilia
B. Sickle cell crisis
C. G6PD
D. Leukopenia

307. The nurse is assessing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following symptoms can the nurse expect to find?
A. Coldness in the calf
B. Decreased body temperature
C. Extremity heaviness
D. Anorexia

308. The pressure of air in the thoracic cavity must be ……………. to ensure lung inflation:
A. Negative
B. Positive
C. High
D. Low

309. In planning for the care of the client who is experiencing bleeding gums and haematuria, the nurse would expect to see which of the following laboratory values?
A. Increased platelet count
B. Decreased prothrombin time
C. Decreased white blood cells
D. Decreased platelet count

310. The Non-Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus affects about …………….. of all cases:
A. 50-60%
B. 70-80%
C. 80-85%
D. 90-95%

311. The thyroid gland produces the following hormones except:
A. Calcitonin
B. Cortisol
C. Thyroxine
D. Triiodothyronine

312. The principal signs of gout do not include:
A. Excruciating pain
B. Swollen joint
C. Frequent discharges
D. Difficulty in movement

313. The common infectious agent that causes osteomyelitis include:
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Clostridium welchii
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

314. The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland secretes:
A. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin
B. Progesterone and oxytocin
C. Aldosterone and oestrogen
D. Cortisol and calcitonin

315. The immediate diagnostic test a nurse can conduct on a patient suffering from diabetes later in a day is:
A. Urea and creatinine
B. Fasting blood sugar
C. Blood nitrogen level
D. Random blood sugar

316. The varicella virus is:
A. Waterborne
B. Found in soil
C. Airborne
D. Food borne

317. Herpes simplex virus I commonly affects the:
A. Intestines
B. Lips
C. Genitals
D. Trunk

318. The major viruses that cause nasal catarrh include the following except:
A. Retrovirus
B. Rhinovirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Enterovirus

319. In teaching a patient suffering from rhinitis, the nurse must:
A. Inform patient to eat more spicy food
B. Drink more fluids
C. Eat late in the night
D. Reduce the amount of fat in the diet

320. The best means to control influenza is:
A. Immunization
B. Use of antibiotics
C. Use of analgesics
D. Combination of analgesics and vitamins

321. The common causes of hypoglycemia in diabetes mellitus are present if the patient:
A. Takes in more food than necessary
B. Does not tolerate the prescribed drugs
C. Takes overdose of antidiabetic drugs
D. Takes more fruit drinks

322. In caring for a diabetic patient, the nurse must change the infusion of normal saline to dextrose when the blood glucose level is:
A. 13 mmol/L or less
B. 13 mmol/L or more
C. 15 mmol/L or more
D. 15 mmol/L or less

323. In the pre-ulcerative stage of Buruli ulcer, the common feature does not include:
A. Firm nodule
B. Painless plaque
C. Non-pitting of the part
D. Enlarged and firm liver

324. In caring for a patient suffering from acute renal failure, the nurse is to:
A. Serve fluids liberally
B. Avoid serving energy foods
C. Inform patient to adhere to his previous lifestyle
D. Observe for signs of infection

325. In polycythemia, the patient often:
A. Complains of nausea
B. Presents with bruises
C. Complains of night blindness
D. Presents with rashes on the trunk

326. Another name for spurious polycythemia is:
A. Reactive polycythemia
B. Stress polycythemia
C. Plummer Vinson syndrome
D. Addison’s disease

327. Leukemias are a group of diseases in which there is excessive production of:
A. Normal red cells
B. Immature erythrocytes
C. Immature leukocytes
D. Increased number of platelets

328. The final stage of chronic nephritis is characterize by:
A. Fear of death
B. Increased plasma urea
C. Slight malaise
D. Presence of oedema

329. A reduction of calcium levels in the blood usually results from:
A. Defective vitamin D metabolism
B. Exposure to radiology
C. Increased consumption of protein-rich foods
D. Increased consumption of lead

330. Complications of renal failure include the following except:
A. Severe hypertension
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Cardiac hypertrophy
D. Defective production of enzymes

331. The common drug treatment of leukemia does not include:
A. Cytarabine
B. Chlorambucil
C. Vincristine
D. Ferritin

332. In gouty arthritis, the normal range of plasma level of uric acid is:
A. 0.018–52 mmol/L
B. 0.81–82 mmol/L
C. 0.18–0.42 mmol/L
D. 0.80–0.32 mmol/L

333. In nephritic syndrome, the urine is reduced in volume and characteristically contains large amounts of:
A. Proteins
B. Ions
C. Urea
D. Nitrogen

334. The causative organism of leprosy is called:
A. Mycobacterium liprae
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Mycobacterium leprosies
D. Mycotuberculous leprae

335. Another name for acute glomerulonephritis is:
A. Galstock disease
B. Down’s syndrome
C. Plummer Vinson syndrome
D. Bright’s disease

336. In osteoporosis, fractures commonly occur in the:
A. Long bones
B. Flat bones
C. Short bones
D. Cranium

337. The female factors affecting infertility do not include:
A. The use of prolactin-secreting inhibitors
B. Ovulatory disorders
C. Tubal dysfunction
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease

338. The adrenal cortex secretes:
A. Thyroxine and cortisol
B. Oestrogen and cortisol
C. Aldosterone and cortisol
D. Oxytocin and cortisol

339. The blood vessels entering the Bowman’s capsule are called:
A. Arterioles
B. Venules
C. Afferent arterioles
D. Efferent arterioles

340. The structures that deliver urine into the bladder are called:
A. Ureters
B. Urethras
C. Calyces
D. Hilum

341. The small masses of crystals formed in the joints of patients suffering from gout are called:
A. Typhi
B. Tophi
C. Salates
D. Uric acid

342. In dietary control of a patient diagnosed of gout, the nurse must instruct the patient to:
A. Avoid liver, kidney and sardines
B. Avoid liver, and fish alone
C. Avoid fish and eggs
D. Avoid meat and green vegetables

343. Factors that inhibit sperm motility include:
I. Highly viscous ejaculate only
II. Alcohol and other drugs
III. Smoking and altitude
IV. Smoking, highly viscous ejaculate and raised scrotal temperature
A. I and III
B. I only
C. II and IV
D. III and IV

344. The hormone that is commonly associated with osteoporosis is:
A. Progesterone
B. Prolactin
C. Oxytocin
D. Oestrogen

345. In osteoporosis, the risk of fracture increases among:
A. The children
B. The adolescents
C. The elderly
D. The infants

346. Gout is associated with poor metabolism and excretion of uric acid and foods rich in:
A. Salts
B. Purines
C. Lipids
D. Cholesterol

347. Polycythemia is commonly associated with the production of:
A. Erythropoietin
B. Prolactin
C. Ferritin
D. Oxytocin

348. The raised cell count that occurs in polycythemia results in:
A. Haemodilution
B. Hypoviscosity
C. Hypercellularity
D. Hypocellularity

349. The commonest diagnostic measure for Buruli ulcer is:
A. ECG
B. Bone biopsy
C. BUN
D. AFB

350. In nephritic syndrome, the nurse’s responsibility is primarily focused on:
A. Prescription of drugs
B. The need to use dialysis
C. Control measures
D. Assist in diagnosis

NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 6

251. The basic factors that may cause peptic ulcer do NOT include one of the following:
A. Excessive secretion of gastric acid
B. Inadequate protection of the lining of stomach and duodenum against digestion by a base and pepsin
C. Helicobacter pylori infection
D. Drug eg. NSAIDs

252. In duodenal ulcer, the pain may wake the patient up in the:
A. Middle of the night
B. Early morning
C. Late in the night
D. Late in the afternoon

253. Which of the following agents is described as H2 Receptor antagonist?
A. Omeprazole
B. Sulphathalazole
C. Ranitidine
D. Amoxicillin

254. Which of the following agents is described as proton pump inhibitor (PPI)?
A. Omeprazole
B. Sulphathalazole
C. Ranitidine
D. Amoxicillin

255. The majority of duodenal and gastric ulcers not associated with NSAIDs are caused by the following except:
A. H2 receptor antagonist
B. H. pylori
C. H. influenzae
D. Proton pump inhibitor

256. Non pharmacological treatment of peptic ulcer include the following except:
A. Cessation of smoking
B. Avoid foods that aggravate the pain
C. Relief of anxiety and stress
D. Promote healing of the ulcer

257. Which of the following does NOT cause gastro esophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
A. NSAIDs
B. Hiatus hernia
C. Pregnancy
D. Obesity

258. An enlarged, displaced anal vascular cushions are described as:
A. Anal thrombosis
B. Redundant fissures
C. Haemorrhoids
D. Prolapsed rectum

259. Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of kwashiorkor?
A. Patient is always hungry
B. Patient does not eat enough proteins
C. There is flaky rash on patient’s skin
D. The patient’s arms look thin and wasted

260. Which of the following conditions can lead to bleeding disorders?
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Pregnancy
D. Liver disease

261. Viral hepatitis is commonly called:
A. Endemic hepatitis
B. Epidemic hepatitis
C. Pandemic hepatitis
D. All of the above

262. Whooping cough is an acute infection caused by a bacterium called:
A. Pertussis bacilli
B. Helicobacter pertussis
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Pertussis cyanobacter

263. In whooping cough, the antibiotics given to victims will not influence the course of illness but:
A. Enhances immunity
B. Improves appetite
C. Protects others
D. Destroys organs

264. The tetanus bacteria live predominantly in:
A. Air
B. Soil
C. Water
D. Air and water

265. Sickle cell crises are mostly precipitated by:
A. Oedema and dehydration
B. Oedema combined with dehydration
C. Stress combined with oedema
D. Infection combined with oedema

266. An episode of sickle crisis is characterized by:
A. Circulatory stagnation and thrombosis
B. Infection and increase appetite
C. Increase blood supply to vital organs
D. Increase tissue oxygenation

267. A hereditary disorder that results from deficiency of clotting factors is called:
A. Sickle cell disease
B. Haemophilia
C. Thalassaemia
D. G6PD

268. Which of the following abnormalities should a nurse expect from a 32-year-old man diagnosed with leukemia?
A. Decreased appetite and nausea
B. Refusal of drugs and poor personal hygiene
C. Anxiety and prolonged ejaculation
D. Anxiety and spontaneous bruises

269. A patient receiving antileukemia drugs often requires:
A. Administration of blood products
B. Administration of anti-histamines
C. Administration of anti-emetics
D. Administration of parenteral nutrition

270. Gouty arthritis is usually precipitated by:
A. A reduction in intake of vitamins
B. An increase intake of vitamins
C. An increase intake of purines
D. An increase intake of alcohol

271. Bronchial asthma may be precipitated by the following except:
A. Infections
B. Allergies
C. Hereditary
D. Optimal warmth

272. The diet of a patient diagnosed with peptic ulcer should not include:
A. Fish and liver
B. Vegetables and fruits
C. Spicy foods and orange
D. Blended meat and vegetables

273. Lasix is indicated in the following conditions except:
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Nephritic syndrome
C. Hypertension
D. Status asthmaticus

274. In the body, iron is available in the form of ferritin and:
A. Myofils
B. Haemosiderin
C. Ferrous
D. Iron compounds

275. Which of the following is the best beverage for a client suffering from coronary artery disease?
A. Coffee
B. Cola
C. Tea
D. Lemonade

276. A patient with congestive heart failure is given furosemide, the nurse must monitor one of the following laboratory values to identify side effects:
A. Glucose
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium

277. The commonest complication a patient receiving thrombolytic therapy shall complain is:
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Tarry stools
C. Decrease urine output
D. Orange urine

278. Hordeolum is also called:
A. Squint
B. Cataract
C. Cyst
D. Sty

279. In diabetes mellitus, the priority of the nurse is to correct:
A. Fluid balance
B. Knowledge deficit
C. Altered nutrition
D. Ineffective family coping

280. Angina pain that is unstable and occurs at rest and often at the same time is:
A. Stable angina
B. Variant angina
C. Unstable angina
D. Prinzmetal angina

281. Which of the following will not be prescribed for a patient diagnosed of Meniere’s disease?
A. Increase fluid intake
B. Low sodium diet
C. Vasodilating medication
D. Mild sedative

282. In acute phase of Diabetic Ketoacidosis the priority nursing action is to:
A. Administer intravenous Regular insulin
B. Administer intravenous 5% Dextrose
C. Correct alkalosis
D. Apply an ECG monitor

283. A client diagnosed with NIDDM has blood glucose of 600 mg/dl, the client was experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss and weakness. The nurse expects which of the following diagnoses?
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Hypoglycaemia
C. Hyperglycaemia hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome
D. Pheochromocytoma

284. A nurse has collected data on a client with diabetes mellitus. The FBS is 130 mg/dl, temperature 38ºC, respiration is 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 140/80 mmHg. Which of the following is the most concern to the nurse?
A. Pulse rate
B. Blood pressure
C. Blood glucose
D. Temperature

285. A ……………….. is a simple test for varicose veins:
A. Arteriography
B. Babinski reflex
C. Ramberg’s sign
D. Trendelenburg test

286. Taking a history of a client with right ventricular heart failure the nurse would expect the client to complain of:
A. Dyspnoea, oedema, fatigue
B. Fatigue, vertigo, headache
C. Weakness, palpitations, nausea
D. A feeling of distress

287. Megaloblastic Anaemia is a deficiency of:
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin B12

288. One of the commonest signs and symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia is:
A. Koilonychia (spoon-shaped fingernails)
B. Moon-like face
C. Excessive eating
D. Excessive thirst

289. The narrowing of the pulmonary valve is known as:
A. Balloon angioplasty
B. Pulmonary stenosis
C. Pulmonary oedema
D. Angioplasty

290. Congenital heart diseases include all the following except:
A. Coarctation of the aorta
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Angina pectoris

291. During admission of a client, he appears anxious and says to the nurse, “The doctor told me I have hypertension. My father died of stroke. I wish I had never smoked.” The most appropriate response by the nurse would be:
A. You are concerned about your diagnosis
B. You are feeling guilty about your smoking
C. Trust your doctor; it is important to have faith
D. There have been improvements in hypertensive drug therapy

292. A client complains that low-salt food is very tasteless. The nurse’s best response would be:
A. Let’s consider some alternatives
B. Salt can be harmful to your health
C. Ask the doctor to increase the intake for you occasionally
D. It must be difficult for you, but you will get used to it

293. The best psychological management of medical conditions is to:
A. Shout at patients and relatives
B. Reassure the client and relatives of good nursing and medical management
C. Serve them with a strong coffee
D. Tell relative to go home, leaving the patient at O.P.D

294. An adult with acute respiratory distress syndrome has been placed on mechanical ventilation. The ventilator alarm goes off while the nurse is in the room. The most important initial assessment by the nurse should be to:
A. Check the respiratory rate setting on the ventilator
B. Determine whether the machine has become disconnected
C. Evaluate the client for any sign and symptom of distress
D. Check the ventilator tubing for disconnections and leaks

295. The pleural space, lungs and heart are filled with air under pressure in:
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Tension pneumothorax
C. Open pneumothorax
D. Idiopathic pneumothorax

296. During neurological assessment of a patient with emphysema, the client is pale and restless and complains that he feels jittery and shaky. He states, “I don’t know what to do. No one seems to understand.” The nurse formulates an initial nursing diagnosis of:
A. Knowledge deficit
B. Altered thought processes
C. Ineffective individual coping
D. Impaired verbal communication

297. The following are diseases of lymphatic system except:
A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Elephantiasis
C. Splenomegaly
D. Raynaud’s disease

298. The haemophilic patient may suffer a deficiency of:
A. Christmas factor
B. Fibrinogen
C. Factor V
D. Prothrombin

299. The nurse is performing a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) on a client. When looking at the ECG tracing, as it is printing from the machine, the nurse finds asystole. The nurse’s first action would be to:
A. Call a code and start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
B. Assess the patient first and then check to see if all electrodes are in place
C. Administer epinephrine (Adrenalin)
D. Obtain another ECG machine and repeat ECG

300. After receiving report on the following clients, which of them will the nurse assess first?
A. A client who had cardiac catheterization 2 hours ago and with blood pressure of 92/70 mmHg
B. A client admitted with a pulmonary oedema 2 days ago
C. A client who received pain medication intramuscularly half an hour ago
D. A client with pleuritic pain of three days duration

NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 2

51. Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the:
a. External ear
b. Tympanic membrane
c. Middle ear
d. Inner ear

52. A patient with otosclerosis will show which of the following as an early symptom?
a. Ringing in the ears
b. Blurred vision
c. Headache
d. Vertigo

53. A nurse should advise a client with Meniere’s disease and experiencing severe vertigo to:
a. Increase fluid intake to 3L a day
b. Avoid sudden head movements
c. Lie still in bed and watch television
d. Decrease sodium intake

54. Oculomotor nerve is also called:
a. Cranial nerve I
b. Cranial nerve IV
c. Cranial nerve III
d. Cranial nerve VII

55. A client diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear usually complains of:
a. Hearing loss
b. Pruritus
c. Tinnitus
d. Burning in the ear

56. An open-angle glaucoma occurs when:
a. The pressure increases within the eye from excess fluid or blocking the drainage
b. The lens of the eye becomes opaque
c. The blood vessels in the back of the eye ruptures
d. There is a reduction in the amount of aqueous humour produced

57. A client with refractive error in both eyes should be advised to:
a. Use eye drops
b. Use rigid contact lenses
c. Use corrective lenses
d. Undergo keratoplasty

58. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of retinal detachment. Which of the following will the nurse include in the plan of care?
a. Out of bed to ambulate with assistance
b. Place an eye patch over the affected eye
c. Maintain high-Fowler’s position
d. Restrict visitors

59. In preparing a client for accommodation test, initially the nurse asks the client to:
a. Focus on a distant object
b. Close one eye and read letters on a chart
c. Raise one finger when the sound is heard
d. Focus on a close object

60. A boy, 14 is admitted to the hospital with acute myelogenous leukemia and presented bruises and petechiae over his legs. Which of the following nursing measure would best prevent additional bruises?
a. Brushing the teeth only once per day
b. Trimming his nails short
c. Handling him well with the palms of the hand
d. Gripping him in an arm chair

61. It is important for the nurse to prevent infection in sickle cell patient because:
a. Infection kills instantly
b. Infection can cause sickling
c. Infection causes clubbing of the fingers
d. Infection causes further blood loss

62. Haemophilia, a coagulation disorder results from deficiency of:
a. Factor IV only
b. Factor IV and factor VIII
c. Factor VIII and IX
d. Factor VIII and factor IV

63. Immature red blood cells are called:
a. Megakaryocytes
b. Haemoglobins
c. Reticulocytes
d. Monocytes

64. The red blood cells that have a relatively low haemoglobin F also have:
a. More haemoglobin S
b. Less haemoglobin S
c. Greater life span
d. Lesser life span

65. A client’s vision is tested with Snellen chart. The result of the test is documented as 20/60. The nurse interprets this as:
a. The Client can read at a distance of 60 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
b. The client is legally blind
c. The client’s vision is normal
d. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 60 feet

66. A nurse is assigned to administer the prescribed eye drops for a client preparing for cataract surgery. Which of the following types of eye drops will the nurse expect to be prescribed?
a. An osmotic diuretic
b. A miotic agent
c. A mydriatic medication
d. A thiazide diuretic

67. A miotic agent would always:
a. Improve the sight
b. Induce diuresis
c. Constrict the pupil
d. Dilate the pupil

68. A mydriatic agent would always:
a. Assist the sight of the client
b. Assist to overcome
c. Constrict the pupil
d. Dilate the pupil

69. A client is diagnosed with glaucoma. Which of these indicate a risk factor associated with glaucoma?
a. A history of migraine headaches
b. Frequent urinary tract infection
c. A cardiovascular disease
d. Frequent upper respiratory infection

70. To minimize the systemic effects that eye drops can produce, the nurse plans to instruct the client to:
a. Eat before instilling the drops
b. Swallow several times after instilling the drops
c. Blink vigorously to encourage tearing after instilling drops
d. Occlude the nasolacrimal duct with the finger for several minutes after instilling the drops

71. Which of the following data collected by the nurse is least associated with Peptic ulcer:
a. History of tarry black stools
b. History of alcohol abuse
c. History of gastric pain 2 to 4 hours after meals
d. History of the use of acetaminophen

72. During administration of nasogastric feeding, the nurse places the patient in which position?
a. Stripping
b. Fowler’s
c. Sims
d. Trendelenburg

73. After feeding a patient through a nasogastric tube, the nurse places the patient in which position?
a. Supine
b. Fowler’s
c. Sims
d. Trendelenburg

74. A nurse is collecting data on a hepatitis patient, which of the following suggest a severe damage to the liver?
a. Dark stools, yellow sclera, and dark urine
b. Clay stools, yellow sclera, and blood tinged urine
c. Clay stools, pruritus and dark urine
d. Dark stools, pruritus, and amber urine

75. A nurse planning care for a client with hepatitis, plans to meet the client’s safety needs by:
a. Monitoring prothrombin and partial thromboplastin values
b. Bathing with tepid water
c. Assisting with meals
d. Weighing and recording a weight daily

76. Which of the following finding is commonly found with a client with hepatitis?
a. Blurred vision or diplopia
b. Urinary frequency or urgency
c. Confusion or drowsiness
d. Diarrhoea or constipation

77. A nurse should include which of the following non-pharmacological treatment plan for a client who has peptic ulcer:
a. Continue to eat the same diet as before diagnosis
b. Smoke only at bedtime
c. Learn to use stress reduction techniques
d. Take non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for pain relief

78. In providing instructions to a client with peptic ulcer disease, the nurse tells the client to:
a. Eat foods that will increase gastrointestinal motility
b. Eat at least six small meals per day
c. Eat everything that does not aggravate or cause pain
d. Consume a bland diet only

79. Which of the following drugs will be prescribed for a patient with too little intrinsic factor?
a. Vitamin B12 injections
b. Vitamin B3 injections
c. Vitamin B6 injections
d. Antacid use

80. A client is diagnosed with chronic ulcerative colitis and is anaemic. What caused the anaemia?
a. Decreased intake of dietary iron
b. Blood loss
c. Intestinal malabsorption
d. Lack of appetite

81. Which of the following is likely to cause pernicious anaemia?
a. Decreased dietary intake of iron
b. Hemi-gastrectomy
c. Excessive consumption of iron
d. Reduced level of thyroxine

82. Pernicious anaemia is associated with:
a. Decreased absorption of vitamin B12
b. Decreased consumption of iron
c. Excessive consumption of iron
d. Excessive loss of gastric juices

83. A client will undergo a barium swallow to determine whether a hiatal hernia is present. The nurse instructs the client to:
a. Avoid eating or drinking after midnight before the test
b. Have a clear liquid breakfast only on the morning of the test
c. Take all routine medications on the morning of the test
d. Limit self to two cigarettes only in the morning of test

84. A client with an ileostomy is at risk of developing:
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Respirations
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis

85. A client with tuberculosis who is co-infected with HIV requires that anti-tubercular therapy lasts for:
a. 6 total months and at least 1 month after culture converts to negative
b. 6 total months and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative
c. 9 total months and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative
d. 9 total months and at least 6 months after culture converts to negative

86. A Mantoux test that results positive has induration greater than:
a. 10mm
b. 5mm
c. 3mm
d. 7mm

87. A client with HIV has positive results on Mantoux skin test with an area of induration of about:
a. 7mm
b. 5mm
c. 10mm
d. 3mm

88. A client with AIDS who is taking zidovudine (Retrovir) 200mg PO may present with which of the following as severe effects:
a. Bacteraemia
b. Polycythemia
c. Neutropenia
d. Natraemia

89. A common reaction from taking Zovirax (acyclovir) is:
a. Elevation in WBCs
b. Elevation in blood urea and nitrogen
c. Elevation in platelet count
d. Elevation in haemoglobin

90. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with rheumatoid arthritis reveals which of the following findings?
a. Cloudy synovial fluid
b. Presence of organisms
c. Bloody synovial fluid
d. Presence of urate crystals

91. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with gout reveals which of these findings?
a. Cloudy synovial fluid
b. Presence of organisms
c. Bloody synovial fluid
d. Presence of urate crystals

92. Which of the following findings is suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus:
a. Two haemoglobin S genes
b. Ascites
c. Emboli
d. Butterfly rash on cheeks and bridge of nose

93. Which of the following findings is indicative of sickle cell disease?
a. Raised level of genes
b. A single abnormal beta haemoglobin
c. Two haemoglobin S genes
d. A single haemoglobin S gene

94. After 2 ELISA tests are positive, which of the following test will be done to confirm an HIV positive status?
a. A CD4 cell count
b. A Western blot
c. A bone marrow biopsy
d. A third ELISA test

95. Which of the following is an early sign of Pneumocystis carinii infection:
a. Cough
b. Dyspnoea on exertion
c. Dyspnoea at rest
d. Fever

96. A client exposed to HIV infection approximately 3 months ago will present:
a. Oral lesions
b. Purplish skin lesions
c. Chronic cough
d. No signs and symptoms

97. Which of the following is a sign of Kaposi’s sarcoma?
a. A raised, dark purplish-coloured lesions on the trunk
b. Erythema nodosum
c. Dyspnoea on slight exertion
d. Numerous boils on the body

98. In making dietary changes for a client experiencing nausea and vomiting, the nurse must:
a. Avoid dairy products and red meat
b. Plan large, nutritious meals
c. Add spices to food for added flavour
d. Serve foods while they are very warm

99. In herpes zoster, the common feature is:
a. The presence of red, raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales
b. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis
c. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by virus
d. Presence of tiny red vesicles

100. A client diagnosed with psoriasis presents:
a. The presence of tiny red vesicles
b. The presence of red, raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales
c. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis
d. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by the virus

NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 3

101. A client diagnosed with eczema presents:
a. The presence of tiny red vesicles
b. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis
c. The presence of red, raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales.
d. The nerve caused by a virus

102. A nurse administering immunizations at health care clinic understands that an immunization will provide:
a. Natural immunity from the disease
b. Acquired immunity from the disease
c. Innate immunity from the disease
d. Protection from all diseases

103. A client with a diagnosis of gout will show which of the following in the blood:
a. Uric acid level of 8.0mg/dl
b. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dl
c. Phosphorus level of 3.0mg/dl
d. Uric acid level of 5.0mg/dl

104. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation associated with osteoarthritis:
a. Pain that is most severe later in the day
b. An elevated platelet
c. Elevated antinuclear antibody levels
d. Dull aching pain in the affected joint

105. Which of the following is abnormal if it is found in the CSF?
a. White blood cells
b. Proteins
c. Red blood cells
d. Glucose

106. Which of the following postures indicates deterioration in the dysfunction of the brain stem area?
a. Decerebrate posturing
b. Fowler’s positioning
c. Sims position
d. Flexion and pronation of the arms

107. Which of the following data indicates a potential late complication associated with Bell’s palsy?
a. Partial facial paralysis
b. Excessive tearing
c. Negative electromyography
d. Degenerated taste buds

108. The common feature in a client with Alzheimer’s disease is:
a. Difficulty in performing new tasks
b. Problems with concrete thinking
c. Recent memory loss
d. Problems with learning

109. The following are forms of liver tests except:
a. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
b. Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)
c. Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT)
d. Serum metabolic rate (SMR)

110. A client with Bell’s palsy initially presents:
a. Tingling sensations of the eyelids
b. Burning pain in the nose and intermittent facial paralysis
c. Speech or chewing difficulties accompanied by facial drop
d. Stabbing facial pain with tingling sensations in the eye

111. What will the nurse do when testing the plantar reflex of a client recovering from stroke?
a. Tap the Achilles tendon using the reflex hammer
b. Gently prick the client’s skin in the dorsum of the foot
c. Firmly strike the lateral sole of the foot and under the toe with a blunt instrument
d. Hold the sides of the client’s great toe, while moving it, ask what position it is in

112. Which of the following techniques will the nurse perform to adequately assess proprioception:
a. Tap the Achilles tendon using the reflex hammer
b. Gently prick the client’s skin in the dorsum of the foot
c. Firmly strike lateral sole of the foot and under the toe with a blunt instrument
d. Hold the sides of the client’s great toe, while moving it, ask what position it is in

113. Slow movement is described as:
a. Hypokinetics
b. Hypokinesia
c. Bradykinesia
d. Bradykinetics

114. In the body iron is more available in the form of:
a. Myofils
b. Haemosiderin
c. Ferrous
d. Ferritin

115. A boy, age 14 is admitted to the hospital with acute myelogenous leukemia and presented bruises and petechiae over his legs. Which nursing measure would best prevent additional bruising?
a. Brushing his teeth only once per day
b. Trimming his nails short
c. Handling him well with the palms of the hands
d. Gripping him in an arm-chair

116. It is important for the nurse to prevent infection in sickle cell patient because:
a. Infection kills instantly
b. Infection can cause sickling
c. Infection causes clubbing of the fingers
d. Infection causes further blood loss

117. Haemophilia, a coagulation disorder that results from deficiency of:
a. Factor IV only
b. Both factor IV and factor VIII
c. Factor VIII & IX
d. Both fact VIII and factor IV

118. Immature red blood cells are called:
a. Megakaryocytic
b. Foetal haemoglobins
c. Reticulocytes
d. Monocytes

119. The red blood cells that have a relatively low haemoglobin F have:
a. More haemoglobin S
b. Less normal haemoglobin
c. Greater life span
d. Less life span

120. Anaemia in sickle cell disease becomes evident and severe when:
a. More cells are produced
b. Erythropoiesis is suppressed
c. Hyperplasia persists
d. Less cells are produced

121. During sickle cell crisis, there is a severe pain in the:
a. Chest, abdomen and joints
b. Fingers, tongue and abdomen
c. Abdomen, breath and kidneys
d. Ear, throat and legs

122. The failure to inherit factor VIII leads to a deficient formation of:
a. Thromboplastin
b. Reticulocytes
c. Embolus
d. Renin

123. In leukemia, there is:
a. Excessive and controllable production of reticulocytes
b. Less excessive and controllable production of leucocytes
c. Excessive and ineffective production of enzymes
d. Excessive and uncontrollable production of leucocytes

124. Leukemia cells have been identified in patient suffering from:
a. Hypertension
b. Down’s syndrome
c. Paterson Brown Kelly syndrome
d. Nephritic syndrome

125. Pernicious anaemia is also called:
a. Avitaminosis
b. Koilonychia
c. Addison’s anaemia
d. Hansen’s disease

126. The normal intake of Vit. B12 is about:
a. 10-14ug
b. Over 20 ug
c. 50-70ug
d. 3-4 ug

127. In haemophilia type B, there is deficiency of:
a. Factor IV
b. Factor IX
c. Factor VII
d. Factor VIII

128. An attack of an acute rheumatic fever is related to an antecedent occurring:
a. Streptococcal throat infection
b. Viral infection
c. Tuberculosis infection
d. Gonococci infection

129. Acute myeloid leukemia is more common in children under 4 years: False

130. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is more common in children under 10 years: True

131. During acute severe blood loss the body will:
a. Inhibit erythropoiesis
b. Reduce blood flow to the peripheral structures
c. Substitute plasma with blood cells
d. Increase haemolytic process

132. Iron absorption in the body is enhanced by the presence of:
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin B6
d. Vitamin D

133. Antimetabolites include:
a. Sulphonamides and methotrexate
b. Aminoglycosides and vinblastine deconoate
c. Methotrexate and thioguanine
d. Vinblastine deconoate and ferritin

134. In the care of a patient with leukemia, the nurse must observe the patient for:
a. Eating of non-nutritious substances
b. Signs of dehydration and mental alertness
c. Signs of overhydration and pharyngitis
d. Bleeding tendencies and signs of infection

135. The presence of dysphagia and glossitis is referred to as:
a. Stevenson Johnson’s Syndrome
b. Plummer Vinson Syndrome
c. Brown’s Williams Syndrome
d. Paterson George Syndrome

136. In pancytopenia a combination of the following occurs:
i. Thrombocytopenia, anoxia, hypoxia
ii. Thrombocytopenia, gluconaemia
iii. Both anaemia and thrombocytopenia
iv. Leukopenia, anaemia and thrombocytopenia
a. I, II III
b. II only
c. IV only
d. II, III and IV

137. The following are examples of haemolytic anaemias except:
a. Haemophilia
b. G6PD
c. Sickle cell anaemia
d. Thalassaemia

138. In haemophiliacs, the swelling of the joints result from:
a. Infection
b. Bleeding
c. Bruising
d. Cholestremia

139. Acute leukemias show:
a. Mature and smaller than normal cells
b. Mature and larger than normal cells
c. Immature and smaller than normal cells
d. Immature and larger than normal cells

140. Sources of Vitamin B12 include:
a. Plant sources and animal sources
b. Plant sources only
c. Animal sources only
d. None of the above

141. In Schilling test, urine is collected for:
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 1 hour

142. In haemophilia there is a:
a. Fast clotting time
b. Delayed clotting time
c. Absence of clotting
d. All of the above

143. In all forms of leukemia, there is a:
a. Weight gain
b. Weight loss
c. Decreased leucocytosis
d. Increased appetite

144. A patient with pernicious anaemia may be given:
a. Antimetabolites
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Sulphonamides
d. Tranquilizers

145. The Schilling test is definitive test for:
a. Iron deficiency anaemia
b. Pernicious anaemia
c. Haemorrhagic anaemia
d. Haemolytic anaemia

146. Haemophilia B is also called:
a. Addison’s disease
b. Crohn’s disease
c. Christmas disease
d. Von Kelly’s disease

147. The ataxia that occurs in pernicious anaemia results from a disturbance in the:
a. Skeletal tissue
b. Nervous tissue
c. Glandular tissue
d. Connective tissue

148. Dementia often occurs in which of the following disease:
a. Pernicious anaemia
b. Addison’s syndrome
c. Aplastic anaemia
d. Haemorrhagic anaemia

149. Leucopenia in a patient makes him prone to the following except:
a. Anaemia
b. Infection
c. Bleeding
d. Somnolence

150. Thrombocytopenia in a patient makes him or her prone to:
a. Infection
b. Somnolence
c. Anaemia
d. Bleeding