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NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 4

150. Thrombocytopenia in a patient makes him or her prone to:
a. Infection
b. Somnolence
c. Anaemia
d. Bleeding

151. The following are clinical manifestations of Addison’s disease EXCEPT:
A. Darkening of scars
B. Hirsutism
C. Hypoglycaemia
D. Hypotension

152. In haemoglobin S patients, the amino acid, valine is substituted with:
a. Monosodium glutamate
b. Ferrous sulphate
c. Glutamic acid
d. Hydrochloric acid

153. Haemolysis of abnormal haemoglobin is enhanced by:
A. Absence of oxygen
B. Flexibility of red cells
C. Presence of molecules
D. Solubility of red cells

154. Normal haemoglobin is:
A. More flexible than abnormal ones
B. Less flexible than abnormal ones
C. Rigid and easily damaged
D. Flexible and easily damaged

155. The emergency care of a patient with aplastic anaemia include the following except:
A. Admission of the patient
B. Control of bleeding
C. Taking of blood specimen
D. Monitoring of oxygen replacement

156. Erythrodermia (homme rouge) occurs in:
A. Lymphocytic leukemia
B. Haemophilia
C. Pernicious anaemia
D. Aplastic anaemia

157. The following factors enhanced the absorption of iron from the gut except:
A. Vitamin C
B. Gastric acidity
C. Moderate alcohol consumption
D. Achlorhydria

158. Another name for hypercapnia is:
A. Hypernopxia
B. Hypercarbia
C. Hyperdypsia
D. Hyperdyspnoea

159. In severe hyperthyroidism, the increased utilization of oxygen is due to:
A. Rapid rate of absorption
B. Rapid rate of metabolism
C. Decrease rate of utilization of carbon dioxide
D. Severe break down of blood cells

160. What is the initial action the nurse should take after realizing that the peripheral intravenous site dressing is wet?
A. Stop infusion immediately and notify the physician
B. Check that the tubing is securely attached
C. Increase the intravenous flow rate to assess for further leaking
D. Remove the plaster and discontinue the infusion

161. A clinical syndrome characterized by choking and suffocating chest pain is described as:
A. Nocturnal dyspnoea
B. Angina pectoris
C. Cardiac asthma
D. Myocardial infarction

162. Among male patients receiving antihypertensive drugs the commonest side effect the nurse should discuss with the client and his wife is:
A. Nausea and dizziness
B. Sudden fall in blood pressure
C. Impotence
D. Dizziness

163. Which of the following is a beta-blocker?
A. Glyceryl trinitrate
B. Propranolol
C. Nifedipine
D. Heparin

164. The action of aspirin is to:
A. Decrease platelet aggregation
B. Dilate coronary and peripheral vessels
C. Resists the conduction of neurons activities
D. Decrease heart rate with increase formation of thrombosis

165. In a patient with a stone lodged in the cystic duct, the nurse observes for:
A. A colicky pain after a fatty meal
B. A painful defaecation
C. A frequent passage of watery stools
D. A prolonged constipation

166. After serving a sublingual nitroglycerin, the nurse must ensure that client has which of the following most important items within easy reach:
A. Vomit bowl
B. Tissue
C. Call bell
D. Moist cloth

167. Calcium channel blockers act on blood vessels to:
A. Decrease the preload
B. Dilate coronary and peripheral vessels
C. Increase thrombosis formation
D. Decrease the force of contraction

168. Prior to abdominal paracentesis for a client with ascites, the first action of the nurse is:
A. Take the client’s temperature every quarter hourly
B. Make sure the bladder is empty
C. Measure the weight of the client
D. Put the client in a Fowler’s position

169. In nursing a client who has a potential for haemorrhage, the nurse’s goal include the following except:
A. Absence of all subjective and objective signs of gastrointestinal, vascular and soft tissue haemorrhage
B. Early detection of bleeding
C. Observing client’s vital signs at frequent interval
D. Serving clients with iron-rich foods

170. In a client with a diabetic coma, the nurse must observe patient for:
A. The presence of sugar content in the urine
B. Abnormal increase blood glucose
C. Polydypsia
D. Polyphagia

171. Which of the following drugs is often prescribed to relief pain of leukemic patient:
A. Metformin
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Morphine
D. Doxorubicin

172. In a patient diagnosed with leukemia, the leucocyte count usually:
A. Rises above normal range
B. Is within normal range
C. Is below normal range
D. Is difficult to be determined

173. Before a nurse serves digoxin to a client, she should:
A. Check the pulse rate
B. Check the blood pressure
C. Check the urine output
D. Check the respiratory rate

174. In teaching a patient and family to administer insulin at home, the nurse:
A. Demonstrate the action of insulin to only the patient
B. Demonstrate how to take other prescribed drugs
C. Demonstrate the ability to prepare a syringe with insulin solution
D. Demonstrate the action of oral drugs

175. When cold compress is applied to the skin the superficial blood vessels constrict and this may:
A. Help to check capillary flow and relieve anxiety
B. Help to increase blood flow and relieve anxiety
C. Help to check capillary bleeding and relieve pain
D. Help to increase blood supply and relieve pain

176. When a heat compress is applied to the skin, it causes:
A. Dilatation of the blood vessels and increase circulation
B. Constriction of the veins and increase circulation
C. Constriction of the blood vessels and decrease circulation
D. Constriction of the arteries and reduce circulation

177. Nurses do not have the responsibility for determining drug dosage for their patients but they:
A. Do so in the absence of the physician
B. Do need to be aware of the normal doses of drugs
C. Prescribe emergency drugs
D. Only serve drugs

178. The most widely used method of administering drugs is:
A. Rectal administration
B. Parenteral administration
C. Oral administration
D. Nasal inhalation

179. The reasons for intramuscular injection include the following except:
A. When quicker absorption is required than from subcutaneous route
B. When the drug would be irritating to superficial tissues
C. When the volume is so large as to preclude the use of other route
D. When administering antibiotics

180. Before nurses lift a patient, there should be:
A. The presence a relative
B. Adequate space around the bed
C. Two chairs placed back-to-back
D. A scale for weighing the patient

181. When a patient complains of fear, the nurse must understand that:
A. The patient’s mental anguish works against a physical recovery
B. One day the patient will accept his condition
C. The patient will identify himself with others suffering from similar condition
D. It is unusual to experience fear

182. Breast milk production requires sufficient output of the:
A. Pituitary hormone
B. Thyroid hormone
C. Adrenal glands
D. Alveolar cell around the nipples

183. Chronic bronchitis co-exists with emphysema when there is:
A. Decrease number of alveoli with increase demand of oxygen
B. Enlargement of alveoli with destruction of their walls
C. Over-secretion of mucus and increase expectoration of mucus
D. Dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles

184. Status asthmaticus is defined as:
A. A chronic asthma that is often treated with drugs
B. A slowly but progressive asthma that is relieved by repositioning of the patient
C. A period when the patient has regain health after an attack
D. A severe asthma that has not responded to patient’s normal

185. The inflammation of the mucosa lining the upper respiratory tract following respiratory tract infection is called:
A. Chronic bronchitis
B. Laryngitis
C. Sinusitis
D. Lobar pneumonia

186. The nursing care for a patient suffering from pneumonia does NOT include:
A. Tepid sponging
B. Ensuring a high fluid intake of preferred drinks
C. Isolating the bacteria that caused the infection
D. Control of pain to ensure comfort

187. The type of tubercle bacilli that affect man is/are:
A. Bovine strains only
B. Bovine strains and human strains
C. Human strains only
D. Neither human nor bovine strains

188. The factors that may influence the development of tuberculosis include the following except:
A. People living alone on good diet
B. Vagrant alcoholics
C. Immigrants with low natural resistance
D. People who have immune suppression

189. Leukemia is classified according to:
A. The blood group the individual belongs to
B. The type of cells that proliferate
C. The type of blood group and cells that are easily destroyed
D. The cells that are involved and their inability to multiply

190. When a patient is taking a course of sulphonamides, the nurse should…………
A. Advice patient to drink more fluids
B. Advice patient to avoid eating fatty foods
C. Check blood pressure twice daily
D. Check pulse rate and rhythm twice daily

191. A patient with cardiac disease who has been in pains for some days was admitted at the female medical ward. Upon assessment, she was diagnosed as having coronary thrombosis. Such pain caused by coronary thrombosis is primarily by………
A. Arterial spasm
B. Blocking of the coronary veins
C. Irritation of nerve endings in the cardiac plexus
D. Ischaemia of the cardiac muscles

196. During dietary care of a patient with nephrotic syndrome, the nurse is expected to:
A. Restrict the patient from taking protein
B. Design a diet to replace the protein lost in the urine
C. Add more sodium to patient’s meals
D. Allow to take oral fluids liberally

197. Tetanus bacilli enter the body through:
A. The oral cavity
B. The oral route
C. The site of the wound
D. Where there is a dead tissue

198. Injection of anti-tetanus toxoid produces in the body:
A. Inactive resistance
B. Passive resistance
C. Active resistance
D. Unnatural resistance

199. Snellen’s chart is used to test:
A. The weight of new born babies
B. The hearing acuity of a person
C. The visual acuity of a person
D. The height of new born babies

200. A cataract occurs when:
A. There is opacity of the lens
B. There is a rise in intra-ocular pressure
C. There is a decrease in intra ocular pressure
D. The lens in the eye allows light to pass through it

 

NMC Past Questions on Medicine and Medical Nursing Set 5

201. The purpose of health education is to:
A. Re-inforce the doctor’s instructions for the patient
B. Meet the patient’s informational needs
C. Facilitate a research to be conducted by nurses
D. Create a rapport between the nurse and the patient

202. In atherosclerosis, the deposition of fatty material occurs beneath:
A. The outer lining of the blood vessels
B. The superficial venules and arterioles
C. The middle lining of the blood vessels
D. The inner lining of the blood vessels

203. Myocardial infarction is characterized by a prolonged:
A. Increased supply of blood and oxygen to the tissues
B. Substernal oppression or pain
C. Radiating pains from the heart to the inner aspects of the arms
D. Emotional change due to fear of death

204. Squint occurs when:
A. There is an increased intraocular pressure
B. There is a failure of the visual axes to meet at the point being observed
C. There is a displaced lens
D. The lenses are opaque

205. Squint is also referred to as:
A. Strabismus
B. Nystagmus
C. Meibomian cyst
D. Applanation prisms

206. Nephrotic syndrome represents a group of symptoms that occur with:
A. Signs of increased albumin in the blood
B. Signs of dehydration
C. Signs of heavy loss of protein
D. Signs of decreased body hormones

207. In the management of a patient suffering from nephrotic syndrome, the nurse must know that:
A. The blood has not been infected
B. The patient is susceptible to infection
C. The patient’s voice will become hoarse
D. The patient is helped with corticosteroid if it is associated with diabetes mellitus

208. In caring for a patient suffering from nephrotic syndrome, the nurse should understand that:
A. He may be conscious of the disorder but finds it difficult in coping with restrictions of the course of treatment
B. He needs anti-diuretic drugs to enhance recovery
C. He needs to wear tight clothing to reduce the occurrence of oedema
D. He keeps away from other patients at the ward

209. Right ventricular failure (Right-sided-heart failure) is treated by the combination of:
A. Morphine and frusemide
B. Rest, digitalis and diuretics
C. Morphine, antibiotics and anti diuretics
D. Morphine alone

210. The primary action of the nurse in providing care for a patient diagnosed of severe heart failure is:
A. To prescribe anti hypertensive drugs
B. To restrict patient from performing an activity
C. Talk to patient’s relative about the need to support patient to recover
D. To identify the cause and treat promptly with drugs

211. The primary action of the nurse in attending to an unconscious patient suffering from severe hypertension is to:
A. Serve the prescribed drugs immediately
B. Check the vital signs immediately
C. Inform the physician immediately
D. Inform the relatives of the policy of the hospital

212. In obesity the increased ingestion of energy foods results in:
A. Increased absorption of carbohydrates
B. Decreased absorption of carbohydrates
C. Poor utilization of vitamins and minerals
D. Increased storage of fat in the body

213. An accelerated form of hypertension is referred to as:
A. Essential hypertension
B. Secondary hypertension
C. Hypertensive encephalopathy
D. Malignant hypertension

214. In nursing management of a patient diagnosed of hypertension, the nurse’s priority is:
A. To identify the primary cause and treat
B. Inform the patient that hypertension is incurable
C. To inform the patient that hypertension is curable
D. Restrict the patient from taking food constraining sodium

215. In malignant hypertension the patient often dies from:
A. Progressive release of catecholamine
B. Progressive renal damage
C. Progressive obstruction of vessels
D. Progressive effects of intake of antibiotics

216. Left ventricular failure (left sided heart failure) is best treated with:
A. Intravenous injection of digitalis and antibiotics
B. Intravenous injection of digitalis alone
C. Intravenous injection of morphine, aminophylline and frusemide
D. Intravenous injection of aminophylline and frusemide

217. The complications of obesity include the following except:
A. Depression
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Decreased libido
D. Atherosclerosis

218. To control diabetes mellitus, the nurse should advise the patient to take the following foods in moderation except:
A. Cabbage
B. Bread
C. Fruit
D. Milk

219. In providing nursing care for a client diagnosed of diabetes mellitus, the patient said he enjoys eating pastries. The nurse’s response should be:
A. Take pastries in moderation
B. You should eat pastries freely
C. You must avoid eating pastries
D. Consult your counselor before you take pastries

220. The hormone erythropoietin controls the production of:
A. Platelets
B. Leukocytes
C. Red blood cells
D. The release of prothrombin

221. Which of the following is not a granular leucocyte?
A. Lymphocyte
B. Neutrophil
C. Basophil
D. Eosinophil

222. The failure of the parathyroids to develop is associated with:
A. Over secretion of thyroxine
B. Under secretion of thymus gland
C. Over secretion of adrenal glands
D. Increased or decreased production of iodine

223. Leucopoiesis results from:
I. Adequate circulation of vitamin B12
II. Adequate production of folic acid
III. Increased production of nucleic acid
IV. Increased absorption of copper from the gut
A. I and IV
B. III only
C. III and IV
D. I, II and III

224. The aim of treating leukemia with cytotoxic drugs is to:
A. Improve patient’s appetite
B. Create a plastic marrow
C. Increase production of blood cells
D. Avoid bleeding

225. Which of the following would be employed to correct acidosis?
A. Administration of potassium compounds
B. Administration of sodium bicarbonates
C. Administration of sodium and potassium compounds
D. Administration of emetics and antihistamines

226. The causative organism of guinea worm is:
A. Dracunculus medinensis
B. Filarial bancrofti
C. Escherichia coli
D. H5N1

227. The success of pain management primarily depends on the:
A. Type of drugs to be used
B. Type of pain and its location
C. The therapist and the patient
D. The patient’s pain threshold

228. The basis of administration of placebos does not intend to look at:
A. The therapeutic properties of the substance
B. The concept of holism
C. The physiologic and psychologic reaction of the patient
D. The location and type of patient’s problem

229. The role of patients in the management of their own pain has been ignored because health care providers:
A. Discourage passive patient role
B. Encourage passive patient role
C. Discourage active patient role
D. Encourage active patient role

230. A sudden and severe form of shock resulting from hypersensitive reaction is termed:
A. Oliguric shock
B. Pyelogenic shock
C. Psychological shock
D. Anaphylactic shock

231. In management of shock, the diagnosis:
A. Must be made rapidly
B. Must be ignored
C. Is made by anybody
D. Is not necessary before the administration of drugs

232. The terminal fibres of the olfactory nerves are located in the:
A. Brain
B. Oral cavity
C. Eustachian tube
D. Nasal cavity

233. A patient was admitted to your ward with ophthalmic problem, he has insistently expressed fears of losing his sight. The nurse must:
A. Tell him to raise an alarm if he cannot see
B. Tell him that he will not go blind
C. Inform him to adapt to any form of disability
D. Refer him to the counseling centre if the need is identified

234. When a physician says there is nothing else to be done for a patient, the nurse should know that:
A. There is no need to care for the patient
B. All drugs should be withdrawn from the patient
C. It is up to her to tell the patient and family
D. It is up to her to provide maximum comfort and care for the patient

235. Yoghurt dressing is effective in dressing fungating wounds because it contains:
A. Antibiotics that destroy all organism
B. Antitoxins called peroxide
C. Lactic acid that destroys odour-producing organisms
D. Enzymes that destroy lacto bacilli

236. In caring for a very ill patient wearing artificial dentures the nurse:
A. Must clean them once every day
B. Seek permission from the patient, remove them for keep
C. Remove and replace them periodically
D. Ask patient to clean them always

237. In caring for a weak and very ill patient, the nurse must avoid:
A. Serving him with prescribed drugs that have constipating effect
B. Serving him with prescribed drugs that have less peristaltic effect
C. Serving him with enough fluids
D. Serving him with evacuate suppositories

238. Yellow fever infection has clinical presentation similar to:
A. Guinea worm
B. Dengue
C. Mumps
D. Malaria

239. Recovery from yellow fever is followed by:
A. A temporal immunity
B. An initial immunity
C. No immunity
D. Lasting immunity

240. Patients placed in erect sitting position should be supported by:
I. Bed rest
II. Footboard
III. Elevating the foot end of the bed slightly
IV. Elevating the foot end of the bed only
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. IV only

241. The left lateral position is used for:
I. Washing the patient
II. Massaging the patient
III. Giving enema
IV. Relieving respiratory distress
A. I only
B. IV only
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV

242. The molecule involved in the transport of oxygen within the red cell and that gives blood its characteristic red colour is called:
A. Fibrinogen
B. Haemoglobin
C. Prothrombin
D. Glucagon

243. Oral thrush is caused by:
A. Monoblast cell
B. Myeloblast cell
C. Pluripotent cell
D. None listed – Oral thrush is caused by _Candida albicans

244. The commonest cause of diarrhoea in children is:
A. Viral
B. Bacterial
C. Fungi
D. Spirochaetes

245. In patients with diabetes insipidus, the specific gravity of the urine is:
A. High
B. Low
C. Moderate
D. Normal

246. Nurse Ama would expect a client with mitral stenosis would demonstrate symptoms associated with the congestion in the:
A. Right atrium
B. Superior vena cava
C. Aorta
D. Pulmonary

247. Abena has been diagnosed with aplastic anaemia. The nurse monitors for changes in which of the following physiologic functions?
A. Bowel function
B. Peripheral sensation
C. Bleeding tendencies
D. Intake and output

248. The following are lipid abnormalities. Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis?
A. High levels of low-density lipid (LDL) cholesterol
B. High levels of high-density lipid (HDL) cholesterol
C. Low concentration triglycerides
D. Low levels of LDL cholesterol

249. The following are possible diagnostic findings of a patient with hypoparathyroidism EXCEPT:
A. Positive Chvostek’s sign
B. Positive Trousseau’s sign
C. Decrease serum phosphate levels
D. Decrease serum calcium levels

250. Peptic ulcer may be classified according to the following organs except:
A. Duodenal
B. Gastric
C. Oesophageal
D. Ileal

 

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NMC Past Questions on Surgery and Surgical Nursing Set 3

101. The best time to do breast self-examination is usually………………..day after menses begin:
A. 3rd
B. 8th
C. 5th

102. In some Ghanaian culture, circumcision of a male child is paramount. Some other medical conditions in the male could be an indication for circumcision. These include:
I. Paraphimosis
II. Phimosis
III. Poor penile erection
IV. Recurrent infection of the foreskin
Correct Answer: I, II and IV

103. Mr. Kweku Atiapa has been discharged from the hospital after 11 days on admission. He is a civil servant and worried about his high discharged bill. What would be the Nurse’s responsibility toward Mr. Atiapa?
A. Report findings to in charge
B. Call a social worker to intervene
C. Advice Mr. Kweku to confide in his doctor

104. The urologist has booked several patients for prostatectomy. The approach to this surgery associated with high incidence of impotence is:
A. Perineal
B. Retropubic
C. Suprapubic

105. The following are methods of reducing fracture EXCEPT:
A. Splinting
B. Open reduction
C. Closed reduction

106. Which of the following tests is included in the diagnosis of varicose veins?
A. Trendelenburg test
B. Intermittent claudication determination
C. Carotid phonoangiogram

107. A patient returns to the ward fully awake following a bronchoscopy and biopsy. The Nurse should:
A. Evaluate the presence of gag reflex
B. Advise the patient to cough frequently
C. Advise patient to lie flat for 2 hours

108. Conservative management of haemorrhoids include the following except:
A. Ice compresses for discomfort
B. Laxatives and stool softeners
C. Ligation of the haemorrhoids

109. Suctioning of the patient with tracheostomy must be brief. It should not exceed:
A. 15 seconds
B. 10
C. 20

110. A female diabetic patient has been admitted to your ward for a laparotomy. What will you include in your nursing intervention to promote wound healing?
A. Apply dry, sterile dressing to wound daily
B. Maintain normal blood glucose range
C. Ensure adequate amount of dietary carbohydrate

111. A 32-year-old known hypertensive is admitted to your ward for abdominal surgery. During your assessment, you found out that he uses diuretics to manage hypertension. Which of the following would you report to the surgeon?
A. Serum potassium of 3.3
B. Blood pressure of 140/80
C. Pulse rate of 105 beats per minutes

112. Thoracic kyphosis is associated frequently with which of the following conditions?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Lumbar disc disease
C. Polymyalgia rheumatic

113. Madam Afi Awuah has been on admission with cancer of the cervix. Whiles reviewing her report with Nurses on duty, you noticed that the cancer is staged as Tis, N0 M0. This will translate to mean:
A. The cancer cells are differentiated
B. Further test is needed to determine spread of cancer
C. The cancer is localized to the cervix

114. In the immediate post-operative period following a splenectomy, the Nurse should observe the patient for:
A. Haemorrhage and abdominal distention
B. Intestinal obstruction and bleeding
C. Peritonitis and pulmonary complications

115. The reason why patients are placed prone for half an hour 4 times daily after undergoing amputation is to:
A. Ensure optimum stump image
B. Improve circulation in remaining tissue
C. Prevent flexion of contractures

116. A patient was rushed to the emergency unit with the diagnosis of Cholecystitis. Which diagnostic investigation will the doctor order to help diagnose Cholecystitis?
A. Abdominal ultrasound
B. Abdominal X-ray
C. Colonoscopy

117. A pharmacology tutor mentioned during her lectures that some category of medications could induce surgical risk in patients undergoing surgery. Among these is:
A. Antibiotics
B. Anticoagulants
C. Sedatives

118. Characteristics of malignant tumours include:
I. Encapsulation
II. Infiltration
III. Looks different from original organ
IV. Spread by blood or lymphatic vessels to other organs
*C. II, III and IV

119. Which of these is assessed to determine the course of prostate cancer?
A. Prostatic fluid for WBCs
B. Blood urea estimation
C. Prostate specific antigen

120. A patient with traumatic wound necessitated debridement of 4cm of devitalized tissues. Which of the following is the most appropriate wound care treatment?
A. Pack with wet to moist saline gauze
B. Primary closure with sutures or staples
C. Cover with a dry dressing fixed with tape or Tegaderm

121. A 69-year-old post-menopausal female complains of leakage of urine with coughing. She states it has become increasingly worse over the past six months. Which of the under listed by the Charge Nurse would be MOST beneficial to the patient?
A. Refer the patient to a urologist for cystoscopy
B. Recommend fluid restriction to 1 liter per day
C. Educate the patient about Kegel exercise

122. Mrs. Ramatu Abdulai is a 65-year-old woman diagnosed with a genitourinary cancer. She is to receive radiation therapy. This therapy is the treatment of choice for:
A. Uterine carcinoma
B. Ovarian cancer
C. Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix

123. Which of the following is paramount in the resuscitation of Ms. Aisha Bio who has sustained severe burns of the trunk and lower limbs?
A. Use of clinical parameters
B. Physical assessment
C. Administration of medication

124. A 42-year-old designer has been admitted to the female surgical ward for removal of painful lump on the neck. The surgery was purposely to improve patient quality of life. This type of surgery will be termed:
A. Palliative
B. Reconstructive
C. Curative

125. A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. Which of the following characterizes the disorder?
A. Autoantibodies against TSH receptors
B. Increased production of T4
C. Increased basal metabolic rate

126. Daavi Yawa is a 45-year-old who complains dyspareunia, itchy, reddened and oedematous vulva has been diagnosed with vulvitis. The following are possible causes of the condition EXCEPT:
*Coitus interruptus

127. Which of the following conditions would be managed by dilatation of the anal sphincter?
A. Faecal impaction
B. Fistula in ano
*C

NMC Past Questions on Surgery and Surgical Nursing Set 2

51. The Nurse should explain to the patient with gonorrhea that treatment will include both Ceftriaxone and Doxycycline because:
A. High rate of coexisting chlamydia and gonorrhea needs dual coverage
B. No single agent successfully eradicates all strains of gonorrhea
C. Most patients do not respond to Ceftriaxone alone

52. In a defaulted peptic ulcer patient, the MOST likely complication could be the following EXCEPT:
A. Stress
B. Haemorrhage
C. Perforation

53. Mr. Seidu Awudu has undergone an ear surgery. Two weeks post-operative, he has weakness of one half of the face and diagnosed with Bell’s palsy. Which of the cranial nerves is involved?
A. 7th
B. 3rd
C. 5th

54. Afua Adams has been brought to the ward after mastectomy. She complains of soreness, numbness and tightness around the chest. As the Nurse on duty, you would explain to Madam Adams that this:
A. Normally occurs days to months after mastectomy
B. Indicates a complication in the heart
C. Shows that the disease has spread to other organs

55. When a patient is semi-conscious, the Nurse should expect the patient to be unable to:
A. React to painful stimuli
B. Move spontaneously
C. Control elimination

56. A 24-year-old woman comes into your office after spilling hot tea on her hand. The affected area is red with a few blisters. On examination, the burn blanches with pressure. The patient notes worsening pain when the burn is exposed to the cold wind. How would you classify this burn?
A. Deep partial-thickness
B. Full thickness
C. Superficial partial-thickness

57. Maame Adwoa is on admission in the female surgical ward after an open cholecystectomy. What will you include in your teaching about exercise to promote recovery?
A. Dorsiflex the feet
B. Tighten abdominal muscles
C. Flexion of the toes

58. The action to be taken when a Nurse suspects that a patient’s wound is infected is:
A. Clean the wound with a bactericidal solution twice daily
B. Take a swab for bacteriological examination
C. Change the dressing aseptically

59. Mrs. Asantewaa Amoako, a 38-year-old trader has been booked for skin grafting after she sustained 3rd degree burns of the lower and upper extremities. Which of the following therapies would be used in treatment of skin grafts and reconstructive flaps with compromised blood flow?
_Answer not provided in options; common therapy is topical nitroglycerin or hyperbaric oxygen, but not listed._

60. Mr. Kwabena Danso, an 86-year-old farmer with hypertension presents to the clinic with a painful big toe. The patient eats a diet of fresh grains, lots of meat, and dairy products and abstains from alcohol. He has not had any recent falls or injuries to his foot that he recalls. You diagnosed him with gout. Which of the following details in this patient’s history put him at an increased risk for gout?
A. Blood pressure medication
B. Consumption of dairy products
C. Patient’s age

61. Maame Adwoa Mansa, a 25-year-old seamstress was admitted to the ward with the intention for a repair of fistula-in-ano. After assessment, she has decided to postpone the surgery due to some cultural beliefs. What will be the nurse’s role in this case?
A. Call in the surgeon to discharge her
B. Call in the chaplain to help her with counseling
C. Allow patient to go since she came herself

62. A patient has undergone a four hour abdominal surgery under spinal anesthesia. She was transferred to the Surgical Unit and started complaining of severe incisional pain after one and half hours. The patient’s skin is pale and surgical dressing is dry and intact. The MOST common preventable complication of abdominal surgery is:
A. Atelectasis
B. Thrombophlebitis
C. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

63. Which of these sutures would the nurse give to the surgeon when he needs a nonabsorbable suture?
A. Fascia
B. Plain catgut
C. Chromic catgut

64. A priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with ulcerative colitis is:
A. High risk for infection
B. Ineffective coping
C. Diarrhea related to hypermotility

65. A patient on admission in your ward is suspected to have cancer of the oral cavity and throat. Which of the following data from the patient during history taking increases the risk of the patient’s condition?
A. Adult onset of diabetes
B. A history of smoking
C. Worked as a banker

66. Ataa Broni has an anterior neck mass. She had a lateral neck X-ray done and confirms a mass in the airway. One of the under listed procedures will aid visualization of the mass with the help of a laryngeal mirror.
A. Indirect laryngoscopy
B. Direct laryngoscopy
C. Rigid laryngoscopy

67. The tonsils are composed of lymphoid tissues situated bilaterally in the:
A. Nasopharynx
B. Oropharynx
C. Larynx

68. Before cholecystectomy, the surgeon orders Vitamin K. This is administered because it is used in the formation of:
A. Cholecystokinin
B. Prothrombin
C. Bilirubin

69. Mr. Kwesi Adom has been diagnosed with chronic prostatitis. What is the preferred antibiotic agent/class for Mr. Adom’s condition?
A. Penicillin
B. Fluoroquinolones
C. Tetracyclines

70. Mr. Kofi Nkansah is on admission with inguinal hernia. He has been scheduled for herniorrhaphy. As part of his physiological preparation, the nurse will do the following:
I. Administer prescribed intravenous fluid
II. Assess for skin infection on the face
III. Check vital signs and record
IV. Remove dentures if any
B. I, III and IV

71. Which of the following drug classes is the first line of treatment for patients with erectile dysfunction?
A. Central alpha agonists
B. Prostaglandins
C. 5-phosphodiesterase inhibitors

72. Mr. Kwasi Imoro, aged 50 is on admission at your ward with burns of the right upper limb. His wound was observed to be infected and he is to have debridement of the wound done at the theatre. The main goal of debridement include removal of the following EXCEPT:
A. Metastatic cells
B. Invasive bacteria
C. Devitalized tissue

73. Mustaph Ogoe, a 30-year-old farmer underwent open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) for a hip fracture. On ward rounds, patient appeared stable and had normal vital signs. Few hours later, his brother frantically calls you to his room and says Ogoe is suddenly acting confused and has difficulty in breathing. Which of the following complications may explain the clinical manifestations of the patient?
I. Deep vein thrombosis
II. Pulmonary embolism
III. Compartment syndrome
IV. Cerebral hypoxia
B. I and II

74. Mr. Kofi Yaro has been on admission on the surgical ward with an infected leg wound which he sustained in a road traffic accident. He has been receiving antibiotics. He recorded a temperature of 38.5°C during one of the routine vital signs check. What nursing action would be appropriate?
A. Tepid sponge patient
B. Administer aspirin every 4 to 6 hours
C. Recheck temperature every 4 hours

75. A patient who has undergone an esophagectomy for esophageal cancer develops increasing pain, fever and dyspnea when a full liquid diet is started post operatively. The nurse recognizes that these symptoms are MOST indicative of:
A. Esophageal perforation with fistula
B. Intolerance to feeding
C. Leakage of food into the mediastinum

76. A 5-year-old girl presents with a recurrent UTI. Physical examination indicates possible sexual abuse. The child’s mother is a single parent and lives with her boyfriend. She claimed she is “certain” that the boyfriend has not sexually abused the child. She requests confidentiality and states she will not leave the child alone with the boyfriend. Which of the MOST appropriate next step?
A. Report this case immediately to DOVVSU
B. Follow-up soon to verify compliance
C. Without clear evidence of abuse, do not report this incident to authorities

77. To prevent bleeding after prostatectomy, the patient should be advised to stop straining on defaecation. The nurse should therefore advise him to increase his intake of:
A. Green leafy vegetables
B. Milk and dairy products
C. Milk and fish

78. Mr. Frank Akowuah, a 70-year-old farmer is on admission with ulcerative colitis. A serious complication of his condition could be:
A. Paralytic ileus
B. Haemorrhage
C. Perforation

79. Ms. Kakraba Forson has intermittent bleeding per vagina. She reported to the hospital and was diagnosed of myoma. She has been booked for hysterectomy and has asked you to explain the procedure to her. Your response will be the removal of the:
A. Uterus and cervix
B. Uterus, cervix and fallopian tube
C. Uterus and vagina

80. Kojo Abusu is an 18-year-old boy who reported to the OPD with multiple boils in the axilla and perineal areas. He is diagnosed with furunculosis and is being managed on Flucloxacillin. How will you educate the patient on dosage of Flucloxacillin?
A. 250mg qid x 7 days
B. 200mg qid x 7 days
C. 500mg qid x 7 days

81. Which of the under listed symptoms of fluid and electrolyte imbalance caused by colitis of which the nurse should report immediately?
A. Extreme muscle weakness and tachycardia
B. Nausea, vomiting, leg and stomach cramps
C. Development of tetany with muscle spasm

82. A patient with metastatic colorectal cancer is scheduled for both chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Patient teaching regarding these therapies would include an explanation that:
A. Radiation is routinely used as adjuvant therapy
B. Chemotherapy and radiation can be used as palliative treatment
C. Chemotherapy can be used to cure colorectal cancer

83. Baby Kwabena is a new born. He is to undergo circumcision one week post-delivery. Neonatal circumcision is an important protective measure against carcinoma of the:
A. Prepuce
B. Glans penis
C. Corpus cavernosum

84. Ms. Brikisi is a 32-year-old chain smoker. She has a hoarse voice during phonation and has inspiratory stridor. She is diagnosed with metastatic lesion in the larynx. She is to undergo surgery to aid phonation and respiration as well as administer chemotherapy. One of the under listed is the surgery to be done.
A. Oesophagoscopy
B. Tracheostomy
C. Laryngectomy

85. A patient presents with wrist drop. The Charge Nurse would be concerned about compression of which of the following nerve?
A. Ulnar
B. Radial
C. Median

86. A man sustained cut while gardening. Why would he be given anti-tetanus immunization?
A. For increased active immunity
B. For immediate protection by antibodies
C. To provide a target for lymphocytes

87. Mrs. Anabert Koomson has been scheduled for craniotomy. This type of operation is performed to:
I. Evacuate a blood clot
II. Relieve intracranial pressure
III. Remove a tumour
IV. Stop haemorrhage in the brain
A. I, II, III and IV

88. Mr. Kofi Kakabuka developed venous ulcer due to chronic venous insufficiency. To determine the appropriate dressings to be applied, the Nurse will consider all the following EXCEPT:
A. Availability of staff
B. Frequency of required dressing changes
C. Ability to absorb wound drainage

89. The Nurse’s priority when caring for a patient with second degree burns is to:
A. Encourage passive movement to prevent contractures
B. Monitor blood pressure and pulse hourly to assess shock
C. Order a high protein and vitamin diet and push in fluids

90. Baba Yakubu, a 52-year-old teacher has undergone haemorrhoidectomy. His postoperative care should include:
A. Encouraging showers when needed
B. Administration of enemas to promote defaecation
C. Administration of laxatives and stool-softeners

91. Which of the following is not a precipitating cause of haemorrhoids?
A. Constipation
B. Occlusion of arterial blood supply to the rectum
C. Prolonged sitting or standing

92. The source of succus entericus is in the:
A. Duodenum
B. Small intestines
C. Large intestines

93. In health educating the patient with glaucoma, the nurse would advise her to avoid factors that will increase intraocular pressure such as:
A. Excessive consumption of salt
B. Emotional upset
C. Excessive consumption of organ meat

94. Madam Esi Nyarkoa has just been brought to the ward after successfully undergoing mastectomy of the left breast. Nurse encourages her to begin deep breathing and leg exercises. The aim of these exercises is to prevent:
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Fluid retention

95. Which of the following is pulmonary disease is characterized by loss of elastic recoil, chronic hyperinflation of the lungs, and increased AP chest diameter?
A. Chronic bronchitis
B. Emphysema
C. Asthma

96. When assessing the urine of a patient with urinary tract infection, the Nurse should assess each sample for:
A. Clarity
B. Sugar and acetone
C. Specific gravity

97. The Charge Nurse at the intensive care unit provides an incentive spirometer to her postoperative tray in order to do which of the following?
A. Provide supplemental oxygen
B. Increase the patient’s lung volume
C. Increase the patient’s respiratory rate

98. Maame Yaa Nyame, a 30-year-old caterer was admitted to the burns unit with 2nd degree burns. Which of the following will you include in her pain management?
I. Nitrous Oxide
II. Hypnosis
III. Warm soaks
IV. Relaxation
A. I, II and III

99. Which of the following is NOT an indication for colostomy:
A. Acute abdomen
B. Diverticulosis
C. Cancer of the rectum

100. Which of the following is the MOST common symptom of Achalasia that patients complain of?
A. Sub-sternal chest pain
B. Halitosis
C. Dysphagia