NMC Past Questions on Paediatrics, Obstetric, Anatomy and Physiology Set 3
NMC Past Questions on Paediatrics, Obstetric, Anatomy and Physiology
85. Kojo who has tetralogy of Fallot usually squats when he is dyspnoeic. The squatting relives the symptoms by A) Allowing maximal chest expansion and oxygenation B) Delaying venous return to the heart C) Increasing the production of red blood cells D) Increasing venous return to the heart
86. A sudden onset of enuresis in a previously dry child is indicative of A) Emotional stress B) Nephritis C) Nephrotic syndrome D) Pyelonephritis
87. Which of the following parts will you use when giving an injection to a 6 month old A) Anterior thigh B) Deltoid muscle C) Dorsogluteal D) Lateral parts of the thigh
88. In examining a 2 year old child with an otoscope the nurse A) Holds just the head and arms B) Holds the head straight C) Pulls the pinna down and back D) Pulls the pinna up and back
89. A child in sickle cell crisis will need the following I. Analgesic II. Exercise III. Plenty of fluids IV. Warmth A) I and IV B) II and III C) II and IV D) I, III and IV
90. The earliest sign of respiratory distress in a young infants A) Cyanosis B) Grunting C) Rapid respiration D) Sternal and subcostal retraction
91. The nurse suspects bleeding when a child who has had tonsillectomy A) Becomes pale B) Complains of thirst C) Coughs persistently D) Swallows frequently
92. A vital disease that affects the motor cell of the anterior horn of the spinal cord is A) Chicken pox B) Poliomyelitis C) Rubella D) Shingles
93. High concentration of oxygen to small infants may cause blindness from A) Corneal ulceration B) Iridocyclitis C) Retinoblastoma D) Retrolental fibroplasia
94. The vomitus in pyloric stenosis is not bile stained because A) The bile duct is obstructed B) The obstruction is above the opening of the common bile duct C) The obstruction of the cardiac sphincter prevent bile from entering the oesophagus D) The sphincter of the bile duct is connected to the hypertrophied pyloric muscle
95. Which of the following blood disorders are found in children? I. Haemophilia II. Sickle cell disease III. Spherocytosis IV. Thalassaemia A) I and II B) I, II and IV C) I, II and III D) I, II, III and IV
96. The cardiac defects associated with Fallots tetralogy include A) Abnormal connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy and atrial septal defect B) Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery for the left ventricle C) Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defects, and stenosis of pulmonary artery D) Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defect and mitral valve stenosis
97. A frequent finger pricks and daily injections may be distressing to a diabetic child. How can you help the child to adjust and adapt? I. Always reward after an injection with a cuddle or praise II. Always tell the child what is going to happen to promote trust III. Never surprise an unprepared child with a syringe IV. Understand her distress and encourage her to talk about it if she wish A) I and II B) I and III C) II, III and IV D) I, II, III and IV
98. Hypospadias is a congenital malformation in which the urethra in the male A) Fails to develop B) Fails to open C) Opens on the lower surface of the penis D) Opens on the upper surface of the penis
99. An 8 year old child with sickle cell disease is admitted with a vaso-occlusive crisis. Priority nursing concerns would be A) Hydration and pain management B) Nutrition and antibiotics C) Nutrition and hydration D) Pain management and antibiotics
100. The following are findings needed to diagnose hookworm infestation EXCEPT A) Anaemia B) Hookworm ova in the stool C) Pus in the stool D) Positive occult blood test
101. Immunity by antibody formation during the course of a disease is A) Active natural B) Active artificial C) Passive natural D) Passive artificial
102. An injection consisting of bacteria cells that have been modified is A) An antitoxin B) Toxin C) Toxoid D) Vaccine
103. Nursing care for a child admitted with tetanus following a punctured wound should be primarily directed towards A) Careful monitoring of urinary output B) Decreasing external stimuli C) Encouraging high intake of fluid D) Maintaining body alignment
104. Nursing care for an infant after surgical repair of a cleft lip should include A) Giving the baby nil per os (N.P.O) B) Keeping the infant from crying C) Placing the infant in a semi fowler’s position D) Spoon feed for the first 2 days after surgery
105. Anaemia in a child may occur as a result of I. Destruction of red cells II. Insufficient production of haemoglobin III. Insufficient production of red cells IV. Loss of blood A) I and II B) III and IV C) II, III and IV D) I, II, III and IV
106. Sessey, 3 years old, is rushed to the emergency room convulsing; the skin is very hot to touch. What immediate stop will you take to reduce the temperature? A) Give cold bath B) Take the axillary temperature C) Tepid sponge the child D) Reassure mother
107. A 9-year old boy has a fractured femur and a full leg cast has been applied. The nurse should immediately notify the physician if assessment demonstrates A) A cast that remains damp and warm after 4 hours B) An increased urinary output C) An inability to move the toes D) Pedal pulse of 90 bpm
108. Aku is to be admitted to hospital for skeletal traction. The nurse explains to his mother that the purpose of the traction is to A) Make the bone grow faster B) Prepare the area for surgery C) Realign bone fragments D) Prevent future fractures
109. Signs of under feeding in babies include I. Abdominal discomfort II. Constipation III. Crying IV. Failure to gain weight A) I and II B) I, II and IV C) II and III D) II, III and IV
110. One complication of otitis media is A) mastoiditis B) meningitis C) parotitis D) tonsillitis
111. A child suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis will undergo all the following investigations EXCEPT A) general x-ray examination B) investigation of the family C) sputum examination D) Tuberculin skin test
112. Some babies develop slight jaundice from the third day after birth or later. This is called A) hepatitis B) jaundice in the infant C) neonatal hepatitis D) Physiological jaundice
113. The following are helpful suggestions in handling a diabetic child who refuses to eat EXCEPT A) ensure her meals are attractive and the environment appealing B) do not overload plate in the hope she will eat “something” C) force the child to eat when food is ready D) try to ensure she eats in the company of others
114. The rate of flow of IV infusion must be regulated often by the nurse to A) Avoid IV infiltration B) Prevent increased flow rate C) Prevent cardiac overload D) Prevent decrease body weight
115. A child has been admitted for surgery to correct a congenital mega colon. Enemas are ordered pre-operative to cleanse the bowl. The best solution to use is A) Hypertonic saline B) Isotonic saline C) Soap suds D) Tap water
116. An essential nursing action when caring to the small child with severe diarrhoea is to I. Encourage fluid orally II. Examine the skin for dehydration III. Replace lost electrolyte IV. Check body weight A) I and II B) I, II and III C) II, III and IV D) I, II, III and IV
117. All parents of children with the following condition will need counselling EXCEPT A) Down’s syndrome B) Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) C) Haemophilia D) ABO incompatibility
118. The following are stages of grand mal epilepsy EXCEPT A) Aura B) Clonic C) Focal D) Tonic
119. Jane developed reddened rushes on the cheek which later involve the arm flexures, leg and gams. Which of the following has she got? A) Eczema B) Impetigo C) Psoriasis D) Scabies
120. The test which would be done to confirm the diagnosis of meningitis is… LUMBAR PUNCTURE Ans. Lumbar Puncture
121. An infant should be able to sit fairly well unsupported at A) 3 months B) 4 months C) 7 months D) 9 months
122. Permanent dentition begins at around A) 6 months B) 4 months C) 6 years D) 8 years
123. Which of the following activities will the child NOT do at 3 months? A) Follows a light to the periphery B) Has taste preference C) Listens to sounds D) Smile in response to a person or an object
124. Which of the following parts will you use when giving IM injection to a 5-month-old child? A) Anterior thigh B) Deltoid C) Dorsogluteal D) Lateral part of the thigh
125. Which of the following blood disorders is sex-linked? A) Haemophilia B) Sickle cell disease C) Spherocytosis D) Thalassaemia
126. Which of these will be a priority need of a child with sickle cell crisis? I. Adequate nutrition II. Analgesics III. Plenty of fluids IV. Warmth A) I and II B) I, II and III C) I, III and IV D) II, III and IV
127. Hypospadias is a congenital malformation in which the urethra in the male A) Fails to descend B) Fails to develop C) Opens on the lower surface of the penis D) Opens on the upper surface of the penis
128. A 7-year-old with a fractured had P.O.P applied. The nurse should notify the doctor at once when assessment shows A) An inability to move the toes B) An increased urinary output C) Pedal pulse of 90bpm D) That the P.O.P remains damp after 4 hours
129. Anaemia in a child may occur as a result of I. Destruction of erythrocytes II. Insufficient production of haemoglobin III. Insufficient production of red blood cells IV. Severe bleeding A) I and II B) II and III C) II, III and IV D) I, II, III and IV
130. A 7-year old had tonsillectomy done. He is still unconscious but is swallowing frequently. This is a sign of A) Anoxia B) Bleeding C) Hypoxia D) Thirst
NMC Past Questions on Paediatrics, Obstetric, Anatomy and Physiology Set 4
NMC Past Questions on Paediatrics, Obstetric, Anatomy and Physiology
131. A viral disease that affects the motor cells of the anterior horn of the spinal cord is A) Chicken pox B) Herpes zoster C) Multiple sclerosis D) Poliomyelitis
132. Administering high concentrations of oxygen to premature babies may cause retrolental fibroplasia with A) Blindness B) bronchiolitis C) Deafness D) Sterile meningitis
133. Children with Fallot’s tetralogy often squats when dyspnoeic because squatting A) Allows maximal chest expansion and oxygenation B) Delays venous return to the heart C) Increases the production of red blood cells D) Increases venous return to the hear
134. Before introducing a tube feeding to a baby the nurse should A) Irrigate the tube with water B) Place the baby in the Trendelenburg position C) Provide the baby with pacifier D) Slowly instil 10mls of formula
135. A 2-year-old on admission with severe bronchial asthma is on prednisone 15mg bd. The nurse should A) Check the child’s eosinophil count B) Give the child nothing by mouth C) Let the child rest as much as possible D) Prevent exposing the child to infection
136. The primary indication of prednisone in the treatment of leukaemia in children is that it A) Decrease inflammation B) Increases appetite and sense of well being C) Reduces irradiation oedema D) Suppresses mitosis in lymphocyte
137. Tetracycline is contraindicated in children under 8 years and pregnant women because it may cause A) Changes in the bone structure of children and pregnant women B) Lower erythrocytes production C) Persistent vomiting in children under 8 years D) Tooth enamel defects in children under 8 years and foetus
138. A 3-year-old wets the bed during sleep. The nurse should A) Change his bed and put rubber sheet on it B) Change his bed clothes and make no issue of it C) Explain to him that big boys should try to call the nurse D) Tell him to help remake the bed
139. The most important complication of mumps in male children is A) Bronchopneumonia B) Diphtheria C) Renal disorders D) Sterility
140. A 4-year-old girl being admitted for surgery is crying and pulling her mother’s dress while clutching a baby doll. The nurse should say; A) “Hello, little girl, let me show you to your bed” B) “Hello, my name is sister Andy, let’s go to your room, then we can play” C) “Hi, I know you are afraid. Is this your special baby doll”? D) “Oh, come on, stop crying. Nobody will hurt you”
141. A child sitting on a chair in the playroom suddenly begins to have tonic-clonic seizure with clenched jaw. The nurse should immediately A) Attempt to open the jaw and insert a gag B) Call for an assistant C) Lower the child to the floor D) Place a large pillow under the head
142. Nursing care for an infant after the surgical repair of cleft lip should include A) Giving the baby nothing by mouth B) Keeping the infant from crying C) Placing the infant in a semi-siting position D) Spoon feeding for the first 2 days after surgery
143. Thirty six hours after delivery a new born has not passed meconium and Hirschsprung’s disease in suspected. To help relieve the obstruction and confirm the diagnosis the doctor will order. A) insertion of a rectal tube p.r.n B) multiple saline enemas C) passing of nasogastric tube D) Surgical intervention
144. A 5-month old infant has diarrhoea and is on IV fluids. The rate of flow must be observed often by the nurse to A) Avoid IV infiltration B) Prevent cardiac overload C) Prevent air from entering the tube D) Replace all fluid lost
145. Of primary importance when planning for the discharge of a child admitted of sickle cells crisis is the child’s need for A) A high calorie diet B) At least 14 hours of sleep per day C) Drinking copious fluid daily D) Taking iron mixtures daily
146. When a child vomiting continuously the nurse should observe for signs of A) Acidosis B) Alkalosis C) Hypokalaemia D) Tetany
147. The difference between cephal haematoma and caput succedaneum is that with caput succedaneum the A) Affected area will be tender B) Scalp over the swelling becomes ecchymosis C) Swelling crosses the suture line D) Swelling increased within 24 hours
148. A preterm neonate is admitted to the NICU with muscle twitching, shrill cry, cyanosis and abnormal respiration. This infant may have A) Intracranial haemorrhage B) Neonatal tetanus C) Spinal bifida D) Tetany
149. The following are findings needed to diagnose hookworm infestation EXCEPT A) Anaemia B) Ova of hookworm in the stool C) Pus in the stool D) Positive occult blood test of stool
150. When examining a new-born the nurse identifies a swelling on the baby’s scalp. Which of the following assessment would indicate the swelling is cephalhaematoma? A) Diffuse discoloration over the entire scalp B) Ecchymotic area over the affected eye C) Swelling confined to a single skull bone D) Usually wide suture line
151. An 8-year old girl has Type I diabetes. The nurse understands that Type I diabetes A) Begins more rapidly than adult-onset diabetes B) Does not always require insulin C) Involves early vascular changes D) Occurs more often in obese children
152. The nurse teaches a mother that she can best help her toddler learn to control his behaviour by A) Allowing the child to learn by mistakes B) Punishing the child for misbehaviour C) Rewarding good behaviour D) Setting limit and being consistent
153. Koplik’s spot is a diagnosis of which of the following infectious disease? A) Chicken pox B) Diphtheria C) Herpes zoster D) Measles
154. Which of these observations would confirm that a 3-year-old child is developmentally delayed? The child will be unable to A) Balance on one foot B) Catch a ball C) Copy a square D) Use a spoon effectively
155. A child test positive for tuberculosis during screening. This indicates A) A depressed immune system B) An active tuberculosis infection C) Previous exposure of the acid-fast bacilli D) That tuberculosis infection is imminent
156. A 4 hour old baby’s cheek was touched and she turns toward the stimulus and opens her mouth. This reflex is called A) Babinsky B) Moro C) Rooting D) Sucking
157. One characteristic of second-degree burns is that A) Blisters cover the entire burns B) The child will not feel pain C) The tissues will be white in colour D) The tissues will turn bright red
158. All children with burns should receive a tetanus booster immunization if they have not received a booster in the last A) 2 years B) 4 years C) 5 years D) 7 years
159. A 6-year-old boy is to have an injection and the mother tells the nurse not to tell him about it as he fears injection. The nurse should say A) “Alright, but I have to give him the injection anyway” B) “Do you want the doctor to tell the boy about it” C) “If we want the boy to trust us we must tell him the truth” D) “Why don’t we tell his father to tell him about the injection”
160. The cerebrospinal fluid examination results that would suggest bacterial meningitis are/is A) Clear CSF B) High glucose, low protein C) High protein, low glucose D) No red blood cells seen
NMC Past Questions on Paediatrics, Obstetric, Anatomy and Physiology Set 5
NMC Past Questions on Paediatrics, Obstetric, Anatomy and Physiology
161. The largest body part of in an infant is A) Head B) Neck C) Pelvic area D) Trunk
162. For children younger than 2-years which of the following is used to measure the pulse rate A) Apical pulse B) Brachial pulse C) Distal pulse D) Radial pulse
163. The anterior fontanel has the following characteristics EXCEPT A) It is a diamond shaped B) It measures 4-5cm at its widest part C) It closes at 2 months of age D) It closes 12-18 months of age
164. Permanent dentition begins around A) 2 years B) 4 years C) 6 years D) 8 years
165. When examining a 2-year old child’s ears with an otoscope, the nurse pulls the A) Lobe down and forward B) Pinna down and forward C) Pinna down and back D) Pinna up and back
166. Baby Kwame has eyes with wide set position, upward slant and thick pericardial folds. This is a suggestive of A) Down syndrome B) Hypothyroidism C) Mallory-weiss syndrome D) Post maturity
167. An infant turns towards the stimulus and opens the mouth when the cheek is touch. This reflex is called A) Babinsky B) Moro C) Rooting D) Sucking
168. The characteristics of second degree burns are: A) Blister cover the entire burn B) The child will not feel pain C) The tissue will be white in colour D) The tissue will turn bright red
169. The major complication from burns is A) Infection B) Oedema C) Pain D) Scarring
170. Children with burns should receive a tetanus booster immunization if they have not receive a booster in the last A) 2 years B) 4 years C) 5 years D) 7 years
171. Which clinical finding should the nurse expect in a 9-months-old with sickle cell anaemia? A) Fine macular rash B) Infected leg ulcer C) Normal haemoglobin level and haematocrit D) Painful swelling of hands and feet
172. A definitive diagnosis of sickle cell disease is based on which diagnostic results? A) Blood chemistry test B) Bone marrow aspiration C) Full blood count (FBC) D) Haemoglobin electrophoresis
173. The progression of the lesion is best described as A) Crust, macule, in chicken pox, vesicle B) Macule, papule, vesicle, rash C) Papule, vesicle, macule, rash D) Vesicle, papule, crust, macule
174. A child with chickenpox is not contagious when A) All the vesicles have crusted B) The trunk vesicles have crusted but not those of the face C) There are still water like blisters on extremities D) The vesicles are still visible
175. Which of the following disease states would chickenpox post the greatest danger? A) Asthma B) Emphysema C) HIV/AIDS D) Pneumonia
176. The stool of a 2-year old child with Hirschisprung’s disease can be described as A) Cord like B) Large anal C) Ribbon like D) Small, hard pebbles
177. Malnutrition during pre-school years can have effect on the child’s I. Intellectual abilities II. Resistance to infectious disease III. Social responsiveness A) I and II B) I and III C) II and III D) I, II and III
178. Which of the following will result in Otitis Media? I. Common cold II. Dental caries III. Infectious fever IV. Tonsillitis A) I and II B) I and III C) II and IV D) I, II, III and IV
179. The drug to set in readiness for use when a child is rushed into your unit with convulsion is injection A) Adrenaline B) Aminophylline C) Diazepam D) Hydrocortisone
180. The MOST common complication of whooping cough in infant A) Atelectasis B) Bronchiectasis C) Bronchopneumonia D) Hernia
181. Which worm infestation would you suspect when a child has marked perineal itching? A) Hook worm B) Round worm C) Tape warm D) Thread worm
182. Which of the following is an early complication of meningitis? A) Cerebral Oedema B) Deafness C) Hydrocephalus D) Paralysis
183. Nursing care of an infant with repaired cleft lip should include I. Keeping the suture area clean and dry II. Placing the infant in a semi-setting position III. Preventing the infant from crying IV. Spoon feeding after surgery A) I and II B) I and III C) I, III and IV D) I, II, III and IV
184. Ophthalmianeonatorum may be caused by I. Chlamydia II. Gonococcus III. Treponema A) I and II B) II only C) II and III D) I, II and III
185. What explanation will you give to a 5-year old child on admission with acute lymphocytic leukaemia who is been nursed in isolation? A) To keep the child away from other children B) To protect the child from too many visitors C) To protect the child from infectious organism D) To provide quiet private environment
186. Kernig’s sign is a characteristic sign on A) Brain tumour B) Cerebral palsy C) Meningitis D) Osteomyelitis
187. A procedure in which a baby’s blood is withdrawn and is replaced with fresh blood is known as A) Direct transfusion B) Exchange transfusion C) Replacement therapy D) Top up transfusion
188. Deficiency in vitamin A can lead to A) Beriberi B) Opthalmianeonatorium C) Scurvy D) Xerophthalmia
189. Children who are at risk of vitamin D deficiency include I. Low birth weight babies II. Babies of mother who lack vitamin D III. Children who live in crowded shanty towns and play mainly inside A) I and II B) II and III C) II only D) I, II and III
190. Which of the following is the best rationale for delay circumcision in a neonate with hypospadias and chordee A) The associated chordee is difficult to remove during circumcision B) The foreskin is used to repair the deformity surgically C) The infant is too small to have a circumcision D) The meatus can become stenosed, leading to urinary retention
191. The main purpose of passing an urethral catheter after surgical repair of hypospadias is A) To decrease pain at the surgical site B) To keep the new urethra from closing C) To measure urine correctly D) To prevent bladder spasm
192. The following conditions are all neurological disorder in infant EXCEPT A) Exomphalus B) Hydrocephalus C) Myelomeningocele D) Spinal bifida occulta
193. Which of the following illnesses in children will lead the nurse to suspect pneumococcus meningitis? A) Bladder infection B) Fractured clavicle C) Middle ear infection D) Septic arthritis
194. Which of the following medications would the nurse question when ordered for relief of discomfort in a child with leukaemia? A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) B) Acetaminophen with codeine C) Ibuprofen D) Propozyphene hydrochloride (Darron)
195. How would you reduce anxiety in a child on admission I. Changing nurse daily II. Confining child to bed III. Involving parents in the care IV. Seeing familiar faces daily A) I and II B) I and III C) III and IV D) I, II and IV
196. The MOST effective way of helping an infant with cleft lip and palate to retain oral feeding is to A) Bubble the infant at frequent intervals B) Feed the infant small amount at a time C) Maintain the infant in a lying position while feeding D) Put the end of the nipple far to the
197. The urine output of a neonate with an imperforated anus is associated which of the following A) Acetone B) Bile C) Blood D) Meconium
198. When developing the preoperative care plan for infant with Hirschsprung’s disease, the nurse is expected to include A) Administration of soap enema B) Insertion of a gastrostomy tube C) Restriction of oral intake to clear liquid D) Using povidine-iodine solution to prepare the perineum
199. Which of the following assessment would be MOST important to the nurse before adding potassium chloride to intravenous fluid therapy for a child with severe gastroenteritis? A) Ability to void B) Baseline electrocardiogram C) Passage of stool today D) Serum calcium level
200. What action will you take when a child is rushed to your ward with severe vomiting and diarrhoea? I. Keep child warm in bed II. Prepare trolley for infusion III. Reassure mother of safety of child in hospital IV. Start oral rehydration therapy A) I,II and III B) I,II and IV C) II,III and IV D) I, II, III and IV
MOH Interview Status Updated to “Selected”: This Is What It Means for Applicants
Many applicants who participated in the Ministry of Health (MOH) recruitment process have begun noticing that their interview status on the recruitment portal has changed to “Selected.” This update has generated excitement among candidates who have been patiently awaiting the outcome of their interviews.
MOH Interview Status Updated to “Selected”: This Is What It Means for Applicants
The “Selected” status generally indicates that an applicant has successfully passed the interview stage and has been shortlisted for the next phase of the recruitment process. Although this is a positive development, applicants should note that further administrative procedures may still be required before official appointment letters are issued.
Candidates whose status has been updated are encouraged to log into the MOH recruitment portal regularly to monitor any additional updates or instructions. It is also important to keep an eye on registered email addresses and SMS notifications, as the Ministry may use these channels to communicate important information regarding postings, documentation, or appointment schedules.
Applicants are advised to ensure that all their personal information on the portal remains accurate and that any requested documents are readily available for verification when needed. Prompt compliance with any instructions from the Ministry will help prevent unnecessary delays in the recruitment process.
For applicants whose status has not yet changed, there is no need to panic. Recruitment updates are often released in batches, meaning some candidates may receive status updates earlier than others. Continue checking the portal periodically and rely only on official communications from the Ministry of Health.
Congratulations to all applicants whose interview status now reads “Selected.” This achievement marks an important milestone in your journey toward joining Ghana’s healthcare workforce. We wish you the very best as you await the remaining stages of the recruitment process.
Stay connected with our platform for timely and verified updates on the Ministry of Health recruitment exercise and other health sector employment opportunities.
1. The following are the causes of maternal mortality EXCEPT A) malnutrition B) infections C) puerperal psychosis D) obstructed labour
2. Which of the following is NOT the best preventive measures of maternal death. i. Accessibility to reproductive and child health services ii. Immunization against tetanus iii. Ensure septic abortions A. iii only B. i, ii only C. i, only D. ii only
3. An example of harmful cultural practice which needs to be abolished by community members include: A) Prolong breast feeding B) Marriages C) Washing hands after greeting friends D) Pepper enema
4. At the child welfare clinic, the following duties are usually performed EXCEPT A) Registration B) Treatment of minor ailments C) Delivery of babies and antenatal services D) Family planning and other reproductive health services
5. Functions of the public health nurse (PHN) include: i. Immunization ii. Prevention and control of communicable disease iii. Reproductive and child health services iv. Disease surveillance A) i, only B) i, ii, iii only C) ii, iii, iv only D) i, ii, iii, iv
6. In an attempt to educate a teenage mother who attends CWC about importance of immunization, which one of the following is NOT important to talk about? A. it provides immunity and protection against specific diseases B. it promotes health C. it prevents deformities and disabilities such as deafness and paralysis D. it promotes family planning services
7. The correct formula for calculating infant mortality is: A) IM = No. of deaths of infants x 100 / No. of live births in mid-year B) IM = No. of deaths of infants x 1000 / No. of live births in year C) IM = No. of deaths of infants x 100 / No. of live births in year D) IM = No. of deaths of infants x 1000 / No. of live births in mid-year
8. To ensure reduction in infant mortality in the community; you need to: i. Improve antenatal and obstetric services ii. Provide good nutrition for mother and child iii. Encourage exclusive breast feeding iv. Discourage family planning practices A) i, ii, iii only B) i, ii, iii, iv C) ii, iii, iv only D) i, ii, iv only
9. As public health nurse, which of the following reasons will you NOT consider when there is high infant mortality in your community? A) Poor antenatal services B) Easy accessibility to services C) Infections D) Lack of immunization
10. The purpose of home visit includes: i. Follow – up of discharge cases ii. Tracing of contacts iii. To offer services to clients in the community iv. Case finding A) i, ii only B) i, ii, iii only C) i, ii, iii, iv D) none of the above
11. The following are requirement to carry out routine home visit EXCEPT A) Transportation B) Water C) Methylated spirit D) A small note book
12. Clients commonly nursed at home include; i. The aged ii. Severe psychotic patient iii. HIV/AIDS patients iv. Diabetes mellitus patients A) i, ii only B) ii, iii, iv only C) i, iii, iv only D) i, ii, iii, iv
13. The advantages of home visit include: i. It offers the opportunities to give health education to clients ii. It affords the opportunity to teach client, using her items iii. The nurse meets the client in his or her real home situation iv. Other clients benefit from the visit A) i, ii, iii, iv B) i, ii, iii only C) i, iii, iv only D) ii, iv only
14. Occupational hazards to the nurse include the following EXCEPT A) Sexual harassment B) Chemical toxicity C) Exposure to radiation and other carcinogenic substance D) Injuries from snake bite
15. The role of the nurse in promoting the health of the worker include the following EXCEPT A) Health education B) Identification of health hazards and notification of authorities for remedy C) Performing minor surgeries D) Liaise with management to provide better condition of service for mothers
16. The components of primary health care include: i. Provision of good sanitation and potable water ii. Promotion of food production and good nutrition iii. Immunization iv. Traditional medicine A) i, ii, iii only B) i, ii, iii, iv C) ii, iv only D) i, iii, iv only
17. The three levels of primary health care in correct order are: A) Level A, B, C B) Level B, A, C C) Level C, B, A D) Level C, A, B
18. The functions of the community clinic attendance include: A) Health education B) Treatment of major diseases and injuries C) Manages normal deliveries D) Manages pregnancies
19. The function of TBA include the following EXCEPT A) Manages simple pregnancies and refer complicated ones to level C B) Manages normal deliveries C) Keeps records on births and referrals D) Treats simple cases
20. Which of the following is not a function of community Based Health Planning and Services (CHPS)? A) Community consultation on health needs B) Prioritization of identified health needs C) Performs minor surgeries D) Health education
21. The system for maintaining vaccines in their potent state from the manufacturer to the community is called A) Cold chain system B) Vaccine carrier system C) Cold box system D) Chain of distribution
22. The required temperature to maintain the potency of the vaccines is between A) O ◦C – 4 ◦C B) O ◦C – 8 ◦C C) -1 ◦C – 7 ◦C D) O ◦C – 10 ◦C
23. What is the age for first dose of BacilleCalmette Guerin (BCG)? A) At birth B) 6 weeks C) 10 weeks D) 14 weeks
24. What is the age for the first dose of measles? A) 6 months B) 4 months C) 10 months D) 9 months
25. The age for yellow fever vaccine is: A) 10 months B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 9 months
26. The age for first dosage of Pentavalent Vaccine is: A) 4 weeks B) 10 weeks C) 6 weeks D) 14 weeks
27. The process of creating artificial immunity by administering a vaccine to an individual to offer a protection against specific diseases in the person is called: A) Vaccination B) Immunization C) Injection D) Medication
28. The immunity offered to an individual through the introduction of a vaccine in which the individual’s blood plays on role in the production of the antibiotics is called A) Artificially acquired passive immunity B) Artificially acquire active immunity C) Naturally acquired passive immunity D) Naturally acquired active immunity
29. The components of the school health services include the following EXCEPT A) School hygiene B) Dental services C) Mental health services D) Maternal health services
30. Select the correct steps you will follow during personal hygiene inspection i. Observe the general behavior of the children as they wait for their turn. ii. Instruct pupils to strip themselves behind the screen iii. Welcome parents / guardians and pupils and offer them seats iv. Give a brief education on the inspection A) i, ii, iv, iii B) iii, iv, ii, i C) iii, I, ii, iv D) ii, I, iii, iv
31. Criminal or antisocial conduct commonly found in Juveniles is termed A) Personality problem B) Bad behavior in children C) Child delinquency D) Deviant
32. Effects of delinquency on the society include: i. increase criminal and antisocial activities ii. teenage pregnancy iii. childlabour iv. poor environment hygiene A) i, ii, iii only B) i, ii, iv only C) ii, iii, iv only D) i, ii, iii, iv
33. The areas of care for the aged include the following EXCEPT A) Personal hygiene B) Physical / medical care C) Nutritional care D) Marital care
34. Functions of the family include: i. Reproduction / procreation ii. Provision of emotional, economic and social support iii. Maintenance of law and order through respect for cultural norms iv. Ensures disputes are sent to law court for settlement A) i, ii, iii, iv B) i, ii, iii, only C) i, ii, iv only D) ii, iii, iv only
35. Problems that could affect the family structure include: i. Ill health ii. Death of a member iii. Fertility iv. Divorce or separation A) i, ii, iii only B) i, ii, iii, iv C) i, ii, iv only D) i, iii, iv only
36. The incubation period of Dracunculiasis is A) 5 – 10 months B) 9 – 12 months C) 12 – 15 months D) 8 – 16 months
37. In life cycle of the dracunculusmendinesis, when water containing the Cyclopes is drunk, which substance acts on it to release larvae in the stomach? A) Sodium chloride B) Gastric juice C) Potassium juice D) Salivary juice
38. Intestinal schistosomias is caused by the following EXCEPT: A) S. Mansoni B) S. Japonicum C) S. Mekongi D) S. Haematobium
39. Preventive measures of schistosomiasis (Bilhaziasis) include the following EXCEPT: A) Portable water must be supplied B) People treated with praziquantel can swim in the water C) The water must be boiled before bathing D) Foot stand must be constructed over the water for people to stand and fetch
40. Components of reproductive health include: i. Family planning ii. Prevention and treatment of STD’s including HIV/AIDS iii. Encouragement of traditional cultural practices v. Safe motherhood A) i, ii, iii, iv B) i, ii, iv only C) ii, iii, iv only D) i, ii, iii only
41. Factors influencing the adoption of the safe motherhood initiative include: i. High maternal morbidity and mortality ii. High literacy rate of women iii. Malnutrition iv. Physical abuse of women A) i, ii, iii only B) i, ii, iii, iv only C) i, iii, iv only D) I, ii, iv only
42. Madam YaaMansah 35 years with six children has opted for family planning. The reasons for this decision include: i. Prevent unwanted pregnancies ii. Prevent infertility iii. Space births iv. Delay or end child – bearing where desired A) i, ii, iv only B) i, iii, iv only C) i, ii, iii, iv D) ii, iii, iv only
43. The advantages likely to be enjoyed by Madam YaaMansah from adopting family planning include: i. Prevents maternal morbidity and mortality ii. Prevents wanted pregnancy iii. It makes the mother relaxes and enjoys a happy home A) ii, iii only B) i, ii, iii only C) i, iii only D) i, ii only
44. Advantages of family planning to the family include: i. Able to mobilize resources to supply the needs of the home ii. Enjoys a happy home iii. Creates interest in family matters from the father iv. More family commitments by attending regular hospital appointment with mother and child A) i, ii, iii only B) i, ii, iii, iv C) i, iii, iv only D) ii, iii, iv only
45. Benefits obtain from family planning by the nation include all EXCEPT: A) Improves standard of living in the society B) Prevents over population C) Increases balance of payment deficit to the government D) It reduces crime rate
46. Identify the artificial family planning method among the following: A) Symptothemal B) Billings method C) Diaphragm and caps D) Lactating Amenorrhoea Method (LAM)
47. Identify which one of the following family planning methods is NOT a hormonal. A) Norplant B) Injectables C) Spermicides D) Oral pills
48. In an attempt to identify a woman who needs urgent advice or counseling on family planning, which factors will you consider as an indications for family planning? i. Women with bad obstetrical history ii. Women with HIV/AIDS iii. Multiparous women with 4, children all dead iv. Very poor mothers A) i, ii, iv only B) i, ii, iii, iv C) ii, iii, iv only D) i, iii, iv only
49. Mrs. Doris Oppong tells you, that she wants to wean her 7 months old. What factors will you consider before advising her on weaning? i. Age of child ii. Availability of feed iii. Weight of baby iv. The sex of the baby A) i, ii, iii, iv B) i, ii, iv only C) i, iii, iv only D) i, ii, iii only
50. Which one of the following is NOT a problem of weaning? A) Under weight B) Separation of mother from child C) Vomiting D) Refusal of feed by child
51. Child survival strategies involve: A) Growth monitoring B) Breast – feeding C) Immunization D) Sex education
52. Factors militating against child survival strategies include: i. Poverty ii. Ill health of mother iii. Good governance iv. Taboo A) i, ii, iii, iv B) i, ii, iv only C) ii, iii, iv only D) i, ii, iii only
53. As a public health nurse, you have been asked to give a health talk on effects of poor sanitation on the individual. What effects will you consider important? i. Outbreak of communicable diseases ii. Pollution of water and air iii. Breeding of mosquitoes and malaria infestation iv. Flooding, due to chocked gutters A) i, ii, iv only B) ii, iii, iv only C) i, ii, iii, iv D) i, ii, iii only
54. Which one of the following is a major sign and symptom of HIV/AIDS? A) Persistent or intermittent cough for more than a month B) Recurrent herpes or shingle C) Persistent or intermittent fever for more than one month D) Oropharyngeal candidiasis
55. The recommended diagnostic investigation for pulmonary Tuberculosis include: i. Sputum smear for AFB test ii. Blood for ESR and FBC iii. Chest X – ray A) i only B) ii, iii, only C) iii only D) i, ii, iii
56. The predisposing causes of T.B include: i. Malnutrition ii. Over crowding in rooms iii. Educational background iv. Occupation v. Poor personal and environmental hygiene vi. Excessive smoking and or alcoholism A) i, ii, iii, iv and v are true B) all are true C) i, ii, iv, v, vi only D) i, ii, iii, iv, v only
57. As a Public Health Nurse, what will you consider important when ask to educate a community about prevention and control of T.B i. Provision of good accommodation and ventilation ii. Provision of good nutrition iii. Discouraging harmful lifestyle such as smoking, alcoholism. iv. Encouraging periodic medical examination for all persons v. Keeping environment clean vi. Avoid immunization against T.B when there is an outbreak A) i, ii, iii, iv only B) all are true C) i, ii, iii, iv, v only D) i, ii, iii, iv only
58. Protein calorie malnutritional conditions include the following EXCEPT: A) Marasmus B) Kwashiorkor C) Marasmic – kwashiorkor D) Kwashiorkor – marasmus
59. What will you tell a teenage mother of two about predisposing causes of marasmus? i. Poor weaning practices ii. Immunization iii. Sudden separation of child from mother iv. Ignorance of parents v. Foods taboos A) i, ii, iii, v only B) I, ii, iii, iv ony C) All are true D) i, iii, iv, v only
60. What signs and symptoms will you ask a teenage mother to look out for when educating her about marasmus? i. Growth retardation ii. Muscles wastage iii. Wrinkled skin iv. Poor appetite v. Anaemia A) All are true B) i, ii, iii, iv only C) i, ii, iii, v only D) ii, iii, iv, v only
61. Akua Dansowaa, a teenage mother of two has reported to you for advice on how to identify whether her children have developed kwashiorkor. What signs and symptoms will you ask Akua to look for? i. Growth failure ii. Muscle wasting not visible due to oedema iii. Good appetite iv. Diarrhoea v. Child becomes apathetic and irritable vi. Anaemia A) i, ii, iii, iv only B) i, ii, iv, v only C) all are true D) i, ii, iii, v only
62. You have been asked by the District Director of Health to educate mothers about home accidents. Identify the various types of home accident you will talk about. i. Drowning ii. Falls iii. Cuts and lacerations iv. Burns and scalds v. Piercing vi. Poisoning vii. Death A) i, ii, iii, iv only B) all are true C) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi only D) i, ii, iv, v, vi only
63. What will you tell the mothers about the predisposing causes of home accidents? i. Negligence ii. Carelessness iii. Overcrowding iv. Facilities for heating and cooking kept at the appropriate place v. Child not supervised during play A) i, ii, iii, v only B) i, ii, iii, iv only C) all are true D) i, ii, iv, v only
64. Which of the following parasites accounts for the highest malaria cases in Ghana? A) Plasmodium ovale B) Plasmodium vivax C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium malariae
65. Why is malaria a problem to the nation? i. it rates as one of the highest causes of morbidity and mortality in the country ii. it affects pregnant women iii. it is the leading cause of death among children under five (5) iv. it affects the labour force and therefore affects output v. There is emergence of potent ant-malaria drugs to cure P. flaciparum at once. A) i, ii, iii, iv only B) i, ii, iii, v only C) i, iii, iv, v only D) all are true
66. The consequences of rapid population growth in Ghana include: i. Poor environmental hygiene ii. Over crowding iii. Unemployment and poverty iv. Child delinquency v. Child labour vi. Increased social vices vii. High productivity A) All are true except ii B) All are true except vi C) All are true except i D) All are true except vii
67. Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining food habits? A) Taboos B) Educational and immunization status C) Economic status D) Cultural background
68. What are the various types of handicaps and disabilities in Ghana? i. Physical disability and handicap ii. Mental handicap iii. Social disability and handicap iv. Psychological disability and handicap A) i, ii, iii only B) i, iii, iv only C) ii, iii, iv only D) i, ii, iv only
69. Which of the following is NOT a type of rehabilitation? A) Industrial rehabilitation B) Social rehabilitation C) Medical rehabilitation D) Psychological rehabilitation
70. Among the problems face by adolescent are as below; which one of the following is least important to consider? A) Drug abuse B) Teenage pregnancy C) Abortion D) Marriage/relationship
71. Health programmes for the youth include: i. Reproductive health ii. Health education iii. Immunization iv. Career opportunities v. School health services vi. Medical services A) i, ii, iii, and iv are true B) all are true C) all except iv, are true D) none of them is true
72. Leprosy is a chronic infectious disease of the skin, peripheral nerves, with incubation period of about A) Five years B) Two years C) Five months D) Ten years
73. Complications of leprosy include: i. Blindness ii. Contractures iii. Atrophy of testis iv. Keloids v. Glove stockings vi. Phonation and resonation in speech A) i, ii, iii only B) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi C) i, iii, iv, v, vi only D) i, ii, iv only
74. The causative organism of typhoid fever is called A) Salmonella typhoid bacterial B) Salmonella typhi bacterial C) Salmonella fever bacterial D) Salmonella typhus bacterial
75. The causative organism of yellow fever is called A) Flavivirus B) Vibrocholerea C) AedesEgypti D) AedesEgypti mosquito
76. Human to human transmission of yellow fever is by A) AedesEgypti B) AedesEgypti mosquito C) Aedes mosquito D) Paramyxovirus
77. Measles, on of the communicable diseases of public health concern is caused by A) Flavivirus B) Paramyoxovirus C) Onchocerca volvulus D) Clamydia trachomatis
78. Community nursing process include the following EXCEPT A) Diagnosis B) Planning C) Access into the community D) Implementation
79. In collecting data for community study, the following methods are used EXCEPT A) Informants interviews B) Participant observations C) Secondary analysis of existing data D) None of the above
80. Areas where health education can take place include: i. Women’s group ii. Church group iii. Industrial groups iv. Business and professional groups v. Government officials A) i only B) all of the above except iii C) all of the above D) none of the above
81. According to the W.H.O and I.L.O (1950) joint declaration defined occupational health in 5 areas… A) i, ii and iv only B) all of the above except v C) none of the above D) all of the above
82. Which of the following diseases is NOT classified under “six killer diseases?” A) T.B B) Diphtheria C) Pertussis D) Cholera
83. Chemical barriers include the following EXCEPT A) Foaming tablets B) Vault caps C) Suppository (vaginal) D) Aerosol foam
84. Strategies for practicing abstinence include the following EXCEPT: i. Be clear about why you want to wait ii. Have a plan iii. Be impressed with yourself iv. Notice the pressures v. Get support vi. Practice communication skills vii. Liaising with commercial sex promoters A) i, ii and vi only B) i, iv, v and vii only C) v and vi only D) i, ii, iv, and vi only
85. Medium risk activities include which of the following i. introducing injured finger into the vagina ii. Sharing sexual toys (ie vibrators) without cleaning them iii. Oral sex without latex barrier iv. Sharing of fantasies A) i only B) ii only C) iii only D) i, ii, iii only
86. When talking about practice of safe sex, the following are true under coercion EXCEPT: A) She / He is pressured to have sex B) Boyfriend or girlfriend won’t let her / him use protection C) One partner desires pregnancy and insist on not using pretection D) Ignorance about protection
87. Which of the following family planning methods has less side effect? A) LAM B) Emergency contraceptive pill C) Spermicides D) Abstinence
88. The following are true about health risk of early pregnancy EXCEPT: A) Cephalo – pelvic disproportion (CPD) B) Pre – eclampsia or pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH) C) Unsafe abortion D) Normal delivery
89. The principles of counseling include the following EXCEPT: A) Interact B) Treat each client well C) Provide too much information D) Tailor information to the client
90. Objective of health education include the following EXCEPT: A) To make health a valued individual asset B) To help individuals and communities to be competent in identifying their own health problems C) To promote the development and proper use of health services available to them D) To identify their health needs and solve for them
91. An act to portray real life situation is known as A) Discussion B) Socratic method C) Didatic method D) Role play
92. The factors to consider when choosing teaching aids include the following EXCEPT: A) The age of the target group B) The target group C) The sex of the target group D) The availability of the material for the particular teaching aids
93. The “GOBI-FFF” child survival strategy includes all EXCEPT A) Growth monitoring B) Oral rehydration C) Breast feeding D) *Food fortification*
94. In community diagnosis, the first step in the nursing process is A) Planning B) Implementation C) *Assessment* D) Evaluation
95. Which vaccine is given as 3 doses at 6, 10, 14 weeks in Ghana’s EPI? A) BCG B) Measles C) Yellow fever D) *Pentavalent*
96. The WHO 5 keys to safer food include all EXCEPT A) Keep clean B) Separate raw and cooked C) Cook thoroughly D) *Use MSG sparingly*
97. The main vector for dengue fever is A) Anopheles mosquito B) *Aedes aegypti mosquito* C) Culex mosquito D) Tsetse fly
98. A mother brings a 2-year-old with sunken eyes, skin pinch goes back slowly. This indicates A) No dehydration B) *Some dehydration* C) Severe dehydration D) Overhydration
99. The most reliable indicator of community health status is A) Birth rate B) *Infant mortality rate* C) Crude death rate D) Literacy rate
100. In outbreak investigation, “case definition” refers to A) Number of deaths B) *Standard criteria to identify cases* C) Source of infection D) Control measures
101. The incubation period of measles is A) 3-6 days B) *10-14 days* C) 21-28 days D) 1-3 days
102. Which is NOT a principle of primary health care? A) Community participation B) Intersectoral collaboration C) Appropriate technology D) *Hospital-based care*
103. For ORS preparation, the correct amount of water for 1L sachet is A) 500ml B) 750ml C) *1 litre* D) 2 litres
104. The “three delays” model explains maternal mortality. Which is NOT one of them? A) Delay in deciding to seek care B) Delay in reaching facility C) Delay in receiving adequate care D) *Delay in postpartum recovery*
105. A PHN doing contact tracing is performing which level of prevention? A) Primordial B) Primary C) *Secondary* D) Tertiary
106. The recommended breastfeeding duration per WHO is A) 3 months exclusive B) 4 months exclusive C) *6 months exclusive, then up to 2 years* D) 12 months only
107. Which disease is eradicated globally? A) Polio B) Measles C) *Smallpox* D) Guinea worm
108. In school health, “screening” is an example of A) Primordial prevention B) *Secondary prevention* C) Tertiary prevention D) Primordial prevention
109. The vitamin given to prevent night blindness in children is A) Vitamin B B) Vitamin C C) *Vitamin A* D) Vitamin D
110. “Health education by example” is called A) Lecture method B) *Role modelling* C) Demonstration D) Discussion
111. The safest water source in rural Ghana is A) River B) Pond C) *Borehole with pump* D) Rain water from roof
112. A child with kwashiorkor will typically have A) Wasted muscles only B) *Oedema + skin lesions* C) No appetite loss D) Diarrhoea absent
113. The first step in GATHER counseling is A) Ask B) *Greet* C) Tell D) Help
114. Which is a water-borne disease? A) Malaria B) *Cholera* C) Tuberculosis D) HIV
115. The normal respiratory rate for a child 12-59 months is A) 20-30 breaths/min B) *20-40 breaths/min* C) 40-60 breaths/min D) 10-20 breaths/min
116. “Health for all by the year 2000” was the goal of A) Alma-Ata Declaration 1978 B) *Primary Health Care Declaration* C) Millennium Development Goals D) Sustainable Development Goals
117. A community mapping exercise is done during A) Planning phase B) Implementation phase C) *Assessment phase* D) Evaluation phase
118. The main cause of neonatal tetanus is A) Poor antenatal care B) *Use of unsterile instruments to cut cord* C) Maternal malnutrition D) Prematurity
119. Which family planning method has 0% failure with perfect use? A) Condoms B) Pills C) IUD D) *Abstinence*
120. In health education, KAP stands for A) Knowledge, Attitude, Practice B) *Knowledge, Attitude, Practice* C) Kindness, Action, Plan D) Knowledge, Ability, Policy
121. The “cold chain monitor card” is used to check A) Vaccine stock B) *Exposure to heat* C) Expiry date D) Batch number
122. A major side effect of Depo-Provera is A) Weight loss B) *Menstrual irregularity* C) Infertility D) Hypertension only
123. The age group 10-19 years is classified as A) Infants B) Children C) *Adolescents* D) Adults
124. Which is NOT a component of Safe Motherhood? A) Family planning B) Antenatal care C) Essential obstetric care D) *Early marriage promotion*
125. The standard unit for measuring height is A) Inches B) *Centimeters/Meters* C) Kilograms D) Liters
126. In disease surveillance, “index case” means A) Last case B) *First case identified in outbreak* C) Fatal case D) Imported case
127. The nutrient lacking in marasmus is mainly A) Protein only B) *Energy/calories* C) Iron only D) Vitamin A only
128. A PHN promoting latrine use is working on A) Health education B) *Environmental sanitation* C) Nutrition D) Immunization
129. The main mode of HIV transmission in Ghana is A) Blood transfusion B) Mother-to-child C) *Heterosexual contact* D) Sharing needles only
130. “Under-five clinic” mainly targets children aged A) 0-1 year B) 0-2 years C) *0-5 years* D) 5-10 years
131. The first aid for nose bleeding is A) Tilt head backward B) *Pinch nostrils + lean forward* C) Apply heat D) Lie flat
132. Which is a chronic disease? A) Malaria B) Cholera C) *Diabetes mellitus* D) Measles
133. In PHC, “referral system” works from A) Hospital to community only B) *Community to hospital and back* C) Hospital only D) Traditional healer to hospital only
134. The weight gain expected in pregnancy per month in 2nd trimester is about A) 0.5kg B) *1-2kg* C) 4-5kg D) 10kg
135. “Diarrhoea causes death through” A) Fever B) *Dehydration* C) Vomiting D) Pain
136. The vaccine that prevents cervical cancer is A) Hepatitis B B) *HPV vaccine* C) Tetanus D) Yellow fever
137. A home visit record book is used for A) *Documentation and follow-up* B) Treatment only C) Diagnosis only D) Billing
138. The main symptom of pulmonary TB is A) Skin rash B) *Cough >2 weeks* C) Joint pain D) Weight gain
139. In nutrition, “weanling diarrhoea” is often due to A) Too much breast milk B) *Contaminated weaning foods* C) Vitamin deficiency D) Overfeeding
140. The ethical principle “do no harm” is A) Autonomy B) Justice C) *Non-maleficence* D) Beneficence
141. Community participation in PHC means A) Nurse does everything B) *People decide and take action on their health* C) Only chiefs decide D) Government decides alone
142. The normal blood pressure for an adult is approximately A) 180/120 mmHg B) 120/80 mmHg C) 90/60 mmHg D) 200/100 mmHg
